SAP C-SRM-70, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C-SRM-70
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SUPPLIER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT WITH SAP SRM 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which mode in the MDM Data Manager allows you to assign attributes to categories in
a hierarchy?
A. Taxonomy mode
B. Record mode
C. Matching mode
D. Hierarchy mode
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the
account
assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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NO.3 What control setting is maintained in the transaction type of an RFx?
A. Allow automatic extension
B. Allow surrogate bidding
C. Allow multiple currencies
D. Allow bidders to add new items
Answer: D

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NO.4 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination
fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where is the setting that enables a purchaser to enter a bid on behalf of a supplier?
A. Business Partner
B. Implementation Guide (IMG)
C. Vendor Group
D. Organization Plan
Answer: A

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NO.6 You can transfer lookup data from ERP and SRM to SRM-MDM. What data can only
be transferred
from ERP to SRM-MDM?
A. Product categories
B. UOM ISO codes
C. Purchasing organizations
D. Currencies
Answer: C

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NO.7 What can be used in MDM Data Manager to calculate the percentage of a price change
for catalog
items?
A. Assignments
B. Validations
C. Matching rules
D. Transformations
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which SAP MDM component is used to schedule automated data imports?
A. MDM Import Manager
B. MDM Server
C. MDM Import Server
D. MDM Connector
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which documents are created for an invoice entered for a local purchase order in the
standalone
scenario?
A. Accounting document in SRM
B. Invoice in ERP
C. Invoice in SRM
D. Accounting document in ERP
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Which follow-on documents can be the result of an SRM confirmation of goods in the
classic scenario.?
A. Acknowledgement and inbound delivery
B. Material document and accounting document
C. Inbound delivery and material documents
D. Accounting document and inbound delivery
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is used in MDM Import Manager to determine whether records are new or already
exist in the
repository?
A. Value Conversion
B. Default Import Action
C. Record Filtering
D. Matching Field(s)
Answer: D

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NO.12 For which kind of auctions do you use proxy bidding?
A. For auctions without lots
B. For auctions without overall best bid validation
C. For auctions with bid decrements at the auction header
D. For auctions without reserve price
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which item data can be defined prior to the start of a live auction? (Choose two)
A. Reserve price
B. Binding period
C. Automatic extension
D. Reference price
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Accounting data is supplied according to the SAP SRM system configuration.
For which shopping carts is this data ignored?
A. For shopping carts which are subject to a purchaser completion workflow
B. For shopping carts in the extended classic scenario
C. For shopping carts referring to procurement cards
D. For shopping carts for direct material
Answer: D

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NO.15 What can be used to give a supplier an advantage in a live auction?
A. Cascading line items
B. Lotting
C. Reference price
D. Factored-cost bidding
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C-PXSUP-90
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Associate - Support Consultant for Incident Management with SAP Business All-in-One)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 How long are local system log entries kept available in SM21?
A. Until the next system restart
B. Until the entry is overwritten (circular file)
C. Until the name of the system log file is changed manually
D. Until the records are replicated to the central system log (usually after one hour)
Answer: B

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NO.2 How can you switch to the debugging mode?
A. Enter /h in the command field
B. Enter /debug in the command field
C. Enter /debugging in the command field
D. Choose Help? Debugging
Answer: A

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NO.3 What kind of function modules may include changes to database tables? (Choose two)
A. Normal function module
B. Remote enabled function module
C. Update function module
D. No function modules at all. Database changes are usually not performed in function
module.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which information is displayed when you choose the menu path System - Status?
(Choose two)
A. Transaction Code, for example, VA01
B. Development Class (Package), for example, VA
C. Database platform and release, for example, Oracle 8.0.5.1.1
D. Customer Number
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which of the following are events of a report program? (Choose two)
A. AT LINE-SELECTION
B. INITIALIZATION
C. PARAMETERS
D. AT TITLE-PAGE-OUTPUT
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What can you do if a program behaves differently in batch than in a dialog? (Choose
two)
A. Search globally in the program for SY-BATCH.
B. Run the program in dialog and change SY-BATCH in the debugger to simulate batch
processing.
C. Run the program in batch and click on DEBUGGING.
D. Run the program in batch and select Environment Analysis.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 What is the function of the F4 key? (Choose two)
A. Display the possible entries.
B. Search for possible entries.
C. Add or remove a value to/from the list of possible entries.
D. Display documentation on possible entries.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which tool of the ABAP Workbench do you use to create global date types and
database tables?
A. ABAP Editor
B. Data Dictionary
C. Screen Painter
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following transactions allows you to find out whether a particular ABAP
program (for
example, RMMMPERI or Z_DELETE_ALL_FI_DATA) has been executed at a certain time in
the past.?
(Choose two)
A. SM50 (Workprocess overview)
B. SM66 (Systemwide Workprocess overview)
C. ST03 (Workload analysis)
D. ST03N (Workload analysis)
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 You have to analyze a job that is currently processing a long running SELECT
statement on a
database table. Via transaction 'SM50 - details', you see that the read does not finish.
What can you do?
A. You have to wait until the program returns from the database. Afterwards, you can
continue analysis
(for example, with debugging or SQL-Trace).
B. You can analyze the currently processed statement using ST04 - detailed analysis.
C. You can analyze the currently processed statement by starting the SQL-Trace (ST05).
Answer: B

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SAP C_TFIN52_66, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: C_TFIN52_66
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which line item field is filled automatically by the sort key field of a master record (G/L
account,
customer, or vendor)?
A. Item text
B. Assignment
C. Amount in document currency
D. Number of the invoice to which the transaction belongs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following task types are supported by the Closing Cockpit or Schedule Manager?
(Choose three)
A. Spreadsheets
B. Transactions
C. Reconciliation keys
D. Notes (as a reminder or milestone)
E. Programs with or without variant
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 For reports in Asset Accounting, which object do you have to use and, where necessary,
customize to determine the sort level and/or the summation level?
A. Depreciation area
B. Sort key
C. Sort variant
D. Valuation area
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have two house banks. Each house bank has three bank accounts.
How many separate G/L accounts do you recommend the customer creates in the chart of
accounts?
A. Six – one for each combination of house bank and bank account
B. One for all postings
C. Two – one for each house bank
D. Three – one for each bank account
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company currently uses internal number ranges for documents. You are rolling out your
system in a new country. It is a legal requirement in this country to have external document
numbering on vendor invoices (currently document type KR). You have copied the number ranges
from the existing company code to the new company code.
Which Customizing settings do you have to make to meet this requirement and have a minimal
effect on the existing system configuration?
A. Mark a new document number range as external and assign it to the document type KR.
B. Create a new external document type and assign the number range 51 to the new document
type.
C. Create a new document type and a new external number range interval as external. Assign the
new number range to the new document type.
D. Mark existing number range interval 51 as external for the new company code.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You post a G/L document. For the Text field, the field status of the posting key is set to
Required
Entry and the field status of the G/L account is set to Hidden Entry?
What happens during posting?
A. The document is posted.
B. A warning message is shown.
C. An error message is shown.
D. The Text field is hidden.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In your leading ledger (ledger solution), balance sheets must be created for company codes
and
segments.
Which Customizing settings do you need to make? (Choose two)
A. Define a retained earnings account.
B. Define two retained earnings accounts and assign them to your P&L accounts.
C. Assign the Segment Reporting scenario to your leading ledger.
D. Activate cost of sales accounting.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which of the following accounts are updated directly?
A. Accounts in the group chart of accounts
B. Accounts in the operating chart of accounts
C. Accounts in the master chart of accounts
D. Accounts in the country chart of accounts
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company-code cost accounting? (Choose two)
A. The same fiscal year variant is used for all company codes.
B. The same currency is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 To which of the following does an asset class apply?
A. To all company codes in a controlling area
B. To all company codes in an instance (client-independent)
C. To all company codes in a client
D. To all company codes within a client, which share the same chart of accounts
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C-TADM51702
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0 EhP2)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 What can you schedule with transaction SM36 (Define Background Job) as a step within a
background job in AS ABAP-based SAP systems? (Choose three)
A. External programs
B. ABAP transactions
C. Function modules
D. Executable ABAP programs
E. External commands
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which process sequence describes the import steps of ABAP transport requests?
A. ABAP Dictionary import –> ABAP Dictionary activation –> Main import –> Generation of ABAP
programs and screens
B. Main import –> Execution of user-defined activities (XPRAs) –> ABAP Dictionary activation –>
Generation of ABAP programs and screens
C. Main import –> Generation of ABAP programs and screens –> ABAP Dictionary import –>
ABAP Dictionary activation
D. ABAP Dictionary import –> Execution of user-defined activities (XPRAs) –> Main import –>
ABAP Dictionary activation
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your company is running an AS ABAP-based SAP System. The employees use SAP GUI for
Windows. You want to enable front end printing for all employees which are using the SAP
system.
What are possible steps to fulfill this requirement?
A. Create an output device with the host spool access method "G" and assign the host printer
"__DEFAULT" to it.
B. Create an output device with the host spool access method "S" and assign the device type
"SAP_SPRINT" to it.
C. Create an output device with access method "LOCL" for each local front end printer.
D. Create an output device "TemSe" and a batch job which redirects the output requests to the
local PCs periodically.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TADM51702   C-TADM51702

NO.4 Which data sources are supported by the User Management Engine (UME) of AS Java?
(Choose
three)
A. The database of the AS Java
B. An UDDI provider
C. A client of an AS ABAP-based SAP system
D. A file on operating system level (secure store)
E. A Directory Server (via LDAP)
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 How can you determine the current store location for TemSe spool objects?
A. Check the table space PSAPSPOOL in the database.
B. Check the environment variable DIR_SAPSPOOL.
C. Check the value of the system parameter rspo/store_location.
D. Check the value of the SAP Spooler Vault parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system consisting of a central instance and one dialog
instance.
Where does an RFC gateway run?
A. As part of the ABAP dispatcher
B. On both instances
C. As part of the Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
D. Only on the central instance
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following checks are useful for database performance monitoring? (Choose
three)
A. Check the data buffer quality.
B. Check the shared cursor cache for expensive SQL statements.
C. Check the filling degree of tablespaces.
D. Check for tables with more than 100 extents.
E. Check if the Optimizer statistics are refreshed regularly.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which of the following activities can be carried out using the Web administration interface of
the
SAP Web Dispatcher?
A. Upgrade the SAP Web Dispatcher.
B. Connect the SAP Web Dispatcher to a directory server.
C. Install the SAP Web Dispatcher.
D. Display parameter settings for the SAP Web Dispatcher.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are running an AS ABAP-based SAP system.
Which of the following can you achieve by using operation modes? (Choose two)
A. You can define the number of work processes reserved for RFC communication.
B. You can define the number of background work processes reserved for jobs of class "A".
C. You can switch background work processes to dialog work processes.
D. You can switch spool work processes to dialog work processes.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which statements regarding user management in an AS ABAP-based SAP system are correct?
(Choose two)
A. A user of type "Dialog" cannot be used for background processing.
B. If you forgot your password you can use the "User -> New Password" menu path on the logon
screen to notify the system administrator that you are requesting a new password.
C. A user with user type "System" cannot log on to the system by using the SAP GUI.
D. SAP recommends assigning authorization profiles via the assignment of roles to the user
master data.
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 あなたは雇用の ゕクションを実行しています。 統合は人材管理 （PA ） と組織管理 （OM ）
との間でゕクテゖブになっています。
この統合の結果として、 IT0001 Organizational Assignment の上のどの フゖールドが直接維持さ
れることができませんか。 （3 つ選択してください）
A. ポジション
B. 人事領域
C. コスト? センター
D. ジョブキー
E. 組織単位
Answer: C,D,E

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6. あなたは、法人と個人の関係を示し 、 彼らの組織単位や位 置 を含むレポートを望 み ま
す。どの評価パスは、標準的な関係を使用して適切なデータを返すでしょうか。
A. S -> P P -> OR O -> S O -> O OR -> OR
B. P -> OR O -> S OR -> OR O -> P O -> O
C. OR -> O O -> S S -> P O -> O OR -> OR
D. OR -> P P -> O O -> S O -> O OR -> OR
Answer: C

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7. 人事計算規則の 従業員サブグループのグループ化の機能は次のどれですか。
A. 許容可能な時間割り当てタ゗プを決定する
B. 許容ウェ゗ジタ゗ プを決定する
C. 有効な賃金グルー プとレベルを決定する
D. 給与計算で正しい 処理ステップを決定する
Answer: D

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8. どのように従業 員の外部時間管理システム ID をサップ人員番号にリンクしますか。
A. 外部の時間管理システムや IT0031 （リフ ゔレンス人事番号） で同一の番号を 割り当てる。
B. 外部の時間管理シ ステム ID と IT0050 （ タ゗ム? レコーデゖング）を作成する。
C. IT0001( 組織的な割り 当て) の上のフゖールド SACHZ に外部時間管理システム ID を格納す る。
D. 外部の時間管理シ ステム ID で、IT0105 （ コミュニケーション）を作成する。
Answer: B

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9. IT0302( 追加のゕ クション) の目的は何ですか。
A. 1 つの人員ゕクションだけが 1 人の従業員 につき 1 日につき保存 されることができること
を保証する。
B. 1 つのステータス変化の人員ゕクションだけが 1 人の従業員につき 1 日につき保存される
ことができることを保証する。
C. 複数のステータス 変化の人員ゕクションが 1 人の従業員につ き 1 日につき保存され るこ
とができることを保証する。
D. 複数の非ステータ ス変化の人員ゕクションが 1 人の従業員につき 1 日につき保存される
ことができることを保証する。
Answer: D

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10. あなたは従業員 のために終了ゕクションを実行したいです。
以下の infotypes のど れが標準プラクテゖスとして区切られてはいけませ んか。
A. IT0040 ( ローンのオ ブジェクト)
B. IT2006 ( 不在クォー タ)
C. IT0008 ( 基本給)
D. IT0014 ( 支給控除)
Answer: C

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NO.2 標準 SAP ERP 組 織管理は、 以下のエリゕのどれで統合しますか。 （2 つ選択してくだ
さい）
A. ワークフロー
B. プラント? メンテナ ンス
C. プロジェクト? シス テム
D. 販売と分配
E. コントロール
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 infotype 0001( 組織 的な割当) の上の組織的なキーの目的は何ですか。 （2 つ選択してくだ
さい）
A. それは Customizing テーブルのキーフゖールドでありえる。
B. それは点線の報告 関係を表示する。
C. それは標準的なレ ポートに追加の選択基準として機能することができる。
D. それは追加の許可 チェックに値が格納される。
Answer: C,D

certification SAP   C-THR12-66-JP   C-THR12-66-JP

NO.4 あなたは人事デ ータについてのリゕルタ゗ム? レポートを提供したいです。 このレポー
トを作成するために、 どのレポートツールを使用するでしょうか。 （2 つ選択してください）
A. レポートラ゗タ
B. SAP NetWeaver ビジ ネス倉庫
C. ゕドホッククエリ
D. SAP クエリ
Answer: C,D

certification SAP   C-THR12-66-JP   certification C-THR12-66-JP

NO.5 どこで PINCH または ABKRS のような機 能の中で決定のために使われることができるフ
ゖールドをすべて見つけますか。
A. ドキュメンテーションの中で
B. カントリーの割り 当ての中で
C. 管理データで
D. 構造で
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Certified Integration Engineer Exam for OneFS 6.0 )
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 An Isilon cluster automatically mirrors files of a certain size or smaller.
What is that file size.?
A. 8 KB
B. 64 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 256 KB
E. 512 KB
Answer: C

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NO.2 You just enabled SnapShotIQ licenses on a customer ¯ s O neFS v6 X c l us t e r. W ha t i s t he r eco mended
maximum number of snapshots that can be taken per directory?
A. 128
B. 256
C. 512
D. 1024
Answer: D

Isilon examen   200-046 examen   200-046   200-046

NO.3 Currently an 11 node 12000X cluster is operational at the customer site. In which of the scenarios below
would you recommend the addition of multiple extension nodes?
A. High client connection count and low storage utilization.
B. High client connection count and high storage utilization.
C. Low client connection count and low storage utilization.
D. Low client connection count and High storage utilization.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the default setting for the access pattern on a LUN created on a OneFS 6.0 cluster?
A. Random
B. Concurrency
C. Streaming
D. Dynamic
Answer: B

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NO.5 What methods can be utilized to discover critical events on the cluster? (Choose three.)
A. isi status
B. isi status list
C. isi events
D. TheCluster Status page that you open by selecting Status from the Cluster Status menu in the web
administration interface.
E. The Cluster Status page that you open by selecting Eventsand then Clusterfrom the
ClusterManagementmenufrom theadministrativewebinterface.
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-900.7
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya IP Telephony Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that will
require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would you
recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.2 A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want the
remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet access. They currently have a
secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. installed ductwork and walls
B. locations of network servers
C. other wireless networks in the area
D. operating system of user machines
E. environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: ACE

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NO.4 An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has been
released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the IVR platform
must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You calculate this
requirement to equal 47 ports.
If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider?
(Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided, affecting
traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: AC

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.5 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets, and 5
CO trunks.
How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.6 In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for IP
telephones at the branch location via the telephony gateway.
Which two gateways are viable options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: AB

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.7 A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes IP
Telephony, multi-locations, and LAN/WAN integration. One of the deliverables for handoff to the
implementation team is the network region design.
What four IP endpoint characteristics may be included in the network region design document? (Choose
four.)
A. codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. identification of locations
Answer: ABCE

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NO.8 If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together, which
software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.9 The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN.
When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols should be implemented? (Choose
two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.10 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and approximately 75
IP sets incorporating G.711.
What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. suggesting upgrading LAN switches to support QoS
B. defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: BC

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7

NO.12 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what is the
distance concern with the TDM cable length?
A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to G650
layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect to the
PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack as the
rest of the PN.
Answer: D

Avaya examen   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.13 You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down.
In what sequence will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary call
processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now the
primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister with the
next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.14 Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q and DiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: ABC

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.15 Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media Gateway.
Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be discussed prior to arriving
at a final design.
Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20 Mbps.
Answer: AC

Avaya   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7

NO.16 Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
communications switch and is included in a QSIG network. The stores have standardized on specific
extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a single, distributed
S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities.
How do you address the client's concern?
A. provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. create unique extensions per location for each application
D. relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

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NO.17 The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7

NO.18 You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in determining
the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network.
What do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: BD

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7 examen

NO.19 Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the SIP
Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

Avaya   132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7   certification 132-S-900.7   132-S-900.7

NO.20 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: AB

certification Avaya   132-S-900.7 examen   132-S-900.7

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Nom d'Examen: Avaya (ACSS Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is requesting space required for an IP500 and expansion modules. IT says that they have
12U space (2U = 73mm / 2.9") available in their rack. 35 DS phones and 30 analog phones are required.
The customer also has one analog trunk. In case of power failure, one analog phone has to ring. The
VMPRO server takes 4U space on the rack.
What is the minimum space required for the IP Office?
A. 2U
B. 6U
C. 8U
D. 12U
Answer: B

certification Avaya   3000.2   3000.2   3000.2 examen

NO.2 A customer has opened up another location in London that will have four employees and wants to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed for over a
year without any software revisions.
Which two solutions do you recommend for the London location? (Choose two.)
A. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 and the 12 port Ethernet switch on a UPS, ground the IP500,
upgrade the IP500 to the same version as the IP500 in New York City, install four digital phones, and
verify the correct software version on the phones.
B. Install the IP500 with VCM 32, add a digital station module on the IP500, Put the IP500 and the DS
module on a UPS, earth ground the IP500 and the digital station module, match the IP500 and DS
module with the version level with New York City and install the four digital phones.
C. Install four digital phones and create a VPN connection between London and New York City for the
digital phones to connect back to the digital station module in New York City.
D. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 on a UPS, a 12 port POE switch on a UPS, earth ground the IP500,
match the IP Office version level with New York City, install four IP Phones, and verify the correct
software version on the IP phones.
Answer: B,D

Avaya   certification 3000.2   3000.2   3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.3 Which three requirements are collected during the Infrastructure Data Gathering phase? (Choose
three.)
A. Productivity Requirements
B. Physical Layer: Existing Telecom Infrastructure
C. Above Physical Layer: Existing Data Network
D. Line of Business application integration needs
E. Current PBX/Key System Features and Dial Plan
Answer: B,C,E

Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2

NO.4 You need to implement the new tourist information center (TIC) in Milan. The requirement is to have an
Auto Attendant that can supply up to three levels (caller can choose option 1, then 2, and finally option 3)
for 10 different information groups such as City Guides, "points of view", Hotels with available room, etc.
An additional requirement is to have the voicemail to email option for all people working at the TIC of
Milan.
Which IP Office version will meet these requirements for the least cost?
A. IP Office Preferred Edition
B. IP Office Preferred Edition and IP Office Advanced Edition
C. IP Office Essential Edition
D. IP Office Advanced Edition
E. IP Office Basic Edition
Answer: C

Avaya   3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.5 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. 1151D1 Individual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery Backup
C. Class "A" 24 volt power supply
D. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   3000.2   3000.2 examen   3000.2 examen

NO.6 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need phones, voicemail, and meet me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will also use it for
inbound and outbound calls. The main site has forty users and one fax machine. The remote site has
fifteen users and one fax machine.
Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site to support all digital phones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32, Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
Answer: D

Avaya   certification 3000.2   3000.2 examen   3000.2

NO.7 A client requests VoiceMail Pro with UMS to be installed. During the installation process the option for
UMS does not appear.
What is the cause?
A. The UMS service is installed automatically.
B. The UMS licenses have not been loaded.
C. The server platform does not meet the requirements.
D. The Windows account does not have permission.
Answer: C

Avaya   3000.2   3000.2   3000.2

NO.8 Call routing in a multi site SCN solution needs careful planning to prevent which three.? (Choose three.)
A. VCM resources are not over subscribed.
B. VMPro ports are not over subscribed.
C. Trunk ports are not over subscribed.
D. ACD routes are not compromised.
E. Calls are not tromboned.
Answer: A,B,C

certification Avaya   3000.2   3000.2   certification 3000.2

NO.9 In Windows Services, which tab would you use to allow the VoiceMail Pro service to run as a specific
user?
A. General
B. Advanced
C. Log On
D. Dependencies
E. User
Answer: C

Avaya examen   certification 3000.2   3000.2 examen   certification 3000.2   3000.2

NO.10 A customer has opened up a new location in London that will have four employees. They want to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed for over a
year without any software revisions. The employees in London will use the New York City location for all
outbound and inbound calls and want to be able to dial any extension at either location.
What should you recommend for this customer?
A. Install an IP500 with four digital phones in London and use short codes to dial across the H.323 IP
trunk to connect back to New York City.
B. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and create a VPN connection between London and New
York City with firewalls at both locations using double network address translations.
C. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to connect back to
New York City to dial out of New York City.
D. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in New York City and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to connect
back to London to dial out of London.
Answer: C

Avaya   3000.2 examen   3000.2   3000.2   3000.2 examen

NO.11 Your customer has requested that you implement a plan to give their two sites complete resiliency.
Which two will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Resiliency License
B. IP Phones with backup call server
C. IP500v2 with redundant processor
D. Preferred Edition
Messaging at both locations
Answer: B,D

certification Avaya   3000.2 examen   3000.2   certification 3000.2   certification 3000.2   3000.2

NO.12 Which supported hardware is needed to protect an analog extension port that is in a different building
than the control unit?
A. ITWLinx towerMAX DS/2
B. Analog surge protector
C. ITWLinx towerMAX SCL/8
D. IP Office Barrier Box
Answer: D

Avaya   3000.2   3000.2

NO.13 Which two licenses are required to support an Interactive Voice Response (IVR) and Text To Speech
(TTS) enabled auto attendant? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Essential System license
B. IP Office Preferred System license
C. IP Office Advanced System license
D. VMPro TTS (Generic)
E. Database license
Answer: B,C

Avaya   3000.2   3000.2

NO.14 A customer is running SIP phones that are locked down to G.729a.
What is the bandwidth used for the speech of ten simultaneous calls?
A. 63 Kbps
B. 80 Kbps
C. 560 Kbps
D. 640 Kbps
Answer: B

Avaya   3000.2   3000.2 examen   3000.2   3000.2

NO.15 Which two cards can give the IP500 control unit the full ability to interface to a T1/E1 ISDN trunk
without additional licenses? (Choose two.)
A. IP 500 PRI U
B. Voice Compression Module
C. ISDN U
D. PRI 24/30
E. Legacy Carrier Card
Answer: D,E

certification Avaya   3000.2 examen   certification 3000.2

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Code d'Examen: 7003.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

Avaya   7003.1   certification 7003.1   7003.1

NO.2 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

certification Avaya   certification 7003.1   7003.1 examen   7003.1

NO.3 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

certification Avaya   7003.1   7003.1 examen   7003.1 examen   7003.1   7003.1

NO.4 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

Avaya examen   7003.1   7003.1   7003.1 examen

NO.5 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

certification Avaya   7003.1   certification 7003.1   7003.1 examen

NO.6 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

Avaya   7003.1   certification 7003.1   7003.1

NO.7 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

Avaya examen   7003.1 examen   7003.1   certification 7003.1

NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equ ir e m en t s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

Avaya   7003.1 examen   7003.1   7003.1 examen   certification 7003.1

NO.9 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

certification Avaya   7003.1 examen   7003.1 examen   certification 7003.1   certification 7003.1

NO.10 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

certification Avaya   7003.1   7003.1 examen

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Code d'Examen: 3203
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 A manager claims that mailbox 5608 is dormant and has not being used for more than 30 days. Where
would you verify this information?
A. the application server
B. the Users and Uninitialized Mailboxes reports
C. the Uninitialized Mailboxes report
D. the User Activity log
Answer: D

certification Avaya   3203   certification 3203   3203   certification 3203   3203

NO.2 A user has a completely functional Avaya Aura Messaging mailbox arid the Message Waiting Indicator
(MWI) light is working. The user informs you that text notifications are not being received on the cell
phone. You log on to the system and see that text notification has been set up correctly on I user
preferences page.
What can you do to test the connectivity to the user's cell phone service provider?
A. Use the SMS Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
B. Use the SMTP Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
C. Use the POP3 Connection diagnostic from the Messaging SMI.
D. Use the Mail Delivery diagnostic from Messaging SMI.
Answer: D

Avaya   3203 examen   certification 3203   3203

NO.3 The WebLM server controls the use and access of Avaya Aura Messaging features through licenses
which must be purchased including the number of Avaya Aura Messaging enabled mailboxes the
customer wants to us.
Which two statements are accurate regarding licensing the Avaya Aura Messaging system? (Choose
two.)
A. A license can be created by Avaya Backbone support; in the event that the permanent license has not
yet been issued; this temporary license will expire in 30 days.
B. The license is created based on the Host ID of the Storage Server.
C. Avaya technicians and Business Partners connect to the Avaya support site and Product Licensing and
Delivery System (PLDS) to order and retrieve the license file dining installation of theserver.
D. An enterprise license allows the same license to be shared with multiple Messaging systems within an
organization.
E. User mailbox count can only be changed through PLDS either by purchasing additional seats or
moving seats between licenses.
Answer: B,D

Avaya   certification 3203   certification 3203

NO.4 An end user has a completely functional mailbox but complains that when using Notify Me to phone is
configured with a long distance number, calls are not received. The user is one of the groups of users with
this problem. Other users can use long distance numbers for their Notify Me to Phone number
successfully. Your testing reveals that the problem is exactly as described using the same long distance
number; one user successfully uses Notify Me to Phone and a non working user cannot.
What is causing the problem?
A. The non working users class of service does not allow long distance dialing from the system.
B. The non working users mailbox configuration is set to disallow long distance dialing from system.
C. Dialing rules have been configured incorrectly for the system.
D. The non working users do not have extensions that are configured in the switch.
Answer: A

Avaya   certification 3203   3203 examen   3203   3203   3203

NO.5 A user was unable to login yesterday but can login today. The user does not remember the exact details
but may have received a timeout or an invalid password.
If the user is unable to login again, which two actions should you perform to troubleshoot this situation?
(Choose two.)
A. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Messaging Administration > Messaging
System (Storage) > User Management and review the User properties.
B. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Messaging Administration > Messaging
System (Storage) > User Activity Log Configuration and ensure that Activity Log Enabled is set to yes.
C. Open the System Management Interface and navigate to Diagnostics > Diagnostics (Application) and
make a test call to that specific User.
D. On the Administration menu, click Messaging > Logs > User Activity, and review the Subscriber Activity
log for a specified timeframe.
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   certification 3203   certification 3203   certification 3203   3203

NO.6 An end user has a completely functional mailbox but complains that when using Notify Me to Phone is
configured with a long distance number, calls are not received. The user is one of a group of users will this
problem. Other users can use long distance numbers for their Notify Me to Phone numbers successfully.
Your testing reveals that the problem is exactly as described using the same long distant number; one
user successfully uses Notify Me to Phone and a non working user cannot.
What is causing the problem?
A. The non working users class of service does not allow long distance dialing from the system.
B. The non working users mailbox configuration is set to disallow long distance dialing from the system.
C. Dialing rules have been configured incorrectly for the system.
D. The non working users do not have extensions that are configured in the switch.
Answer: A

certification Avaya   3203 examen   3203   3203 examen

NO.7 Which type of data do you need to enter in the Connection field of the SIP specific configuration.?
A. Thefully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the far end switch.
B. The hostname followed by the port of the far-end switch.
C. theIP address and port of the far end switch.
D. theFQDN and port of far end switch.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 3203   3203 examen

NO.8 On which two virtual servers do we install the WebLM license file received from the Avaya licensing and
Delivery System (PLDS)? (Choose two.)
A. on the Console Domain Network Configuration (cdom) of the Storage Server
B. on the System Domain (Domain 0) on all of the application only servers
C. on cdom of the Single Server
D. on the System Domain (Domain-0) on any one of the application servers
E. on Avaya Aura Messaging on the first application server in the Domain
Answer: A,C

certification Avaya   certification 3203   3203   certification 3203   3203

NO.9 Where do you define topology properties for an Avaya Aura Messaging system?
A. on the storage server, which then applies them to the associated Application servers
B. on the Application server, which then applies them to the associated Storage server
C. on both the Application server and the associated Storage server
D. on each Application Server of a cluster and on the associated Storage server
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is Avaya's recommended order when upgrading servers in a multi-server deployment?
A. Always upgrade the Storage server first and then the application servers.
B. Always upgrade the application servers in the deployment first and then the other
C. Servers can be upgraded in any sequence.
D. All servers can be upgraded simultaneously.
Answer: A

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