2013年12月31日星期二

Novell meilleur examen 050-730, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 050-730
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Certified Novell Identity Manager Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which view do you use to access Policy Simulator? (Choose 2.)
A. The Tasks view
B. The Outline view
C. The Project view
D. The Navigator view
E. The Policy Flow view
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 Which task within Novell iManager allows administrators to view all objects that are associated with a
particular Novell IDM driver?
A. Object Inspector
B. Driver Inspector
C. DriverSet Inspector
D. Driver Cache Inspector
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statements about the Integrated Installer are true? (Choose 2.)
A. It automatically handles dependencies
B. It automatically installs all of the drivers
C. The iManager plug-in needs to be manually installed
D. It exists only for the Windows operating system family
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which view enables you to view the filters that allow the data to flow between all of the systems and
the Identity Vaults as well as view how passwords flow through the different systems?
A. Project view
B. Outline view
C. Dataflow view
D. Navigator view
E. Policy Set view
Answer: C

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NO.5 An Identity Manager Job can only interact with which driver channel?
A. Input
B. Sender
C. Output
D. Receiver
E. Publisher
F. Placement
G. Subscriber
Answer: G

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NO.6 When you start Designer for the first time or start Designer without a project listed, which should you
first do?
A. Make sure that the Debug perspective is selected.
B. Make sure that the Plug-in perspective is selected.
C. Make sure that the Designer perspective is selected.
D. Make sure that the Java/Java Browsing perspective is selected.
E. Make sure that the Java Type Hierarchy perspective is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When using Designer, which modeling mode is used to do all low-level operations with driver sets,
drivers, policies and applications?
A. Table Mode
B. System Mode
C. DataFlow Mode
D. Architect Mode
E. Developer Mode
Answer: E

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NO.8 What does a Driver object contain? (Choose 2.)
A. Packages
B. Driver Set
C. Policy Objects
D. Application driver shim
E. Subscriber and Publisher objects
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 When using Designer, a perspective is a collection of related views and editors. Which perspective
should be open the first time you run the application?
A. Debug perspective
B. Designer perspective
C. Java/Java Browsing perspective
D. Java Type Hierarchy perspective
E. Plug-in Development perspective
Answer: B

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NO.10 When data changes in the Identity Vault or a connected application, which processes the changes?
A. Drivers
B. Remote Loader
C. Identity Vault
D. Metadirectory Engine
E. Connected application
Answer: D

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NO.11 Identity Manager uses a MetaDirectory Engine to process Identity Vault data and events. What
component assures changes in the Identity Vault are not lost if a connected system goes offline?
A. Partition
B. Obit flag
C. Change Log
D. Event Cache
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which statement is true.?
A. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Publisher channel to a driver shim.
B. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, Identity Manager creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
C. When an event occurs in a connected system, Identity Manager creates an XML document that
describes the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to a driver shim.
D. When an event occurs in the Identity Vault, a driver shim creates an XML document that describes the
Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
E. When an event occurs in a connected system, a Driver Shim creates an XML document that describes
the Identity Vault event and submits it through the Subscriber channel to Identity Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which statements are true? (Choose 2.)
A. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a notification.
B. When an event is being sent to a driver, it is a command.
C. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a command.
D. When an event is being sent to Identity Manager, it is a notification.
E. Events and commands are handled the same way within an IDM 4 environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 Which installation mode is supported by the integrated installer?
A. Silent mode
B. Non-root mode
C. Console mode
D. AutoYaST mode
E. Standalone mode
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the minimum RAM system requirement for Designer?
A. 128 MB
B. 256 MB
C. 512 MB
D. 1024 MB
E. 2048 MB
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 920-344
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 and BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement should be considered when you allocate DS30 channel Block resources using a 3/5
channel split configuration?
A. This configuration is achieved by assigning bus two to the voice data sector.
B. This configuration allocates three DS30 channel blocks to Media Bay Modules.
C. This configuration may be configured during system startup using the Startup Profile.
D. This configuration may be used to accommodate increased IP telephony or VoIP trunk requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You
explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are
concerned about it being able to
handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to
a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer:A

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NO.3 A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is
configured for IPSec
Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which
functionality does this describe?
A. split routing
B. dual routing
C. split tunneling
D. dual tunneling
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer's new system will be configured with 55 IP telephones, an IVR system and a voicemail. This
system will also use over 30 analog and digital telephones. What should the DS30 split be for this
customer?
A. A 2/5 split
B. A 2/6 split
C. A 3/5 split
D. A 3/6 split
Answer: C

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NO.5 A client has a BCM 400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are concerned
about overloading the BCM 400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the maximum number of
simultaneous tunnels?
A. 12 tunnels
B. 16 tunnels
C. 24 tunnels
D. 30 tunnels
Answer: B

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NO.6 BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority
fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the
highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of
service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.7 In planning a network configuration for a customer there are tools available to help you with your plan.
Which tool should you use to determine the specific requirements for the system design, including pricing
information?
A. BCM Monitor
B. AppManager
C. Startup Profile
D. Enterprise Configurator
Answer: D

Nortel   920-344   920-344

NO.8 Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing
adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the
availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a
suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.
B. The jitter buffer must be configured.
C. The Transmit threshold must be set.
D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.
E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.
Answer:AC

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NO.9 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on their
BCM 400
system. Which two factors should be considered when making this determination? (Choose two.)
A. The range is 0 to 16 ports.
B. The range is 0 to 32 ports.
C. Each voicemail port requires one media channel resource.
D. Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?
A. PKI
B. RC4
C. AES
D. PPTP
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which statement is true when a script is installed on a window using the Install OnTimer Script step?
A. The script can not operate on hidden windows.
B. The window must be closed to uninstall the script.
C. The script will run on any new window created from the initial window.
D. In a window with more than one installed script, the scripts will be performed in the order in which they
were installed.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.3 A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user's desktop
and the filename must contain that person's name along with the current date (without additional user
input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A script executed by a FileMaker Server schedule running on a Windows server exports a group of
records to a tab-delimited file. The resulting file needs to be saved to the FileMaker Server Documents
folder and the filename must contain a current timestamp appended to the word orders_ (e.g.
orders__02042009065656.tab).
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at:
C:\Users\Administrator\Documents.
B. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at: C:\Program
Files\FileMaker\FileMaker Server\Data\Documents.
C. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
D. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a calculation field with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
E. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( ServerDocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentServerTimeStamp );
"0123456789") & ".tab".
Answer: BC

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.5 Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; " " ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; " " ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains "John Q. Adams", what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A

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NO.6 Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph,
which two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = "NY".
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Navigate to a layout based on the
Products table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose "NY" under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and
finally Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC

FileMaker   FM0-304 examen   FM0-304

NO.7 Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD

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NO.8 What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

FileMaker examen   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.9 A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script
A completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two techniques can be used to import a table and its record data from one FileMaker Pro file
to another using FileMaker Pro Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Import Records > File command and choose New Table as the Target.
B. Copy and paste a table occurrence from one relationship graph to the other.
C. Use the File Migration Tool from Solution Options in the Developer Utilities dialog.
D. Use the Import button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog to import the tables field
definitions, then use the Import Records > File command to import the record data.
E. Use the Copy button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the source database, then
use the Paste button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the target database.
Answer: AD

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NO.11 Which two statements are true if two windows in a FileMaker Pro 10 database display records based
on the same layout? (Choose two.)
A. If a record is being edited in one window, it cannot be edited in the other window.
B. A find performed in one window will be available as a Recent Find in the other window.
C. If a new record is created in one window, it will become the active record in both windows.
D. If a custom menu set is installed in one window, it will become the active menu set in the other window
as well.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 Which two statements are true in a FileMaker Pro 10 database containing scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple changes to multiple scripts can be saved using one operation.
B. Edits to a script can be undone by closing the script's Edit Script window without saving changes.
C. Running a script while other scripts have unsaved changes will cause all unsaved changes to be
reverted.
D. Closing the Manage Scripts window will prompt the user to save changes to the order or grouping of
scripts.
Answer: AB

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.13 Using FileMaker Server 10, which two groups of ports must be open to provide database services,
web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console? (Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.14 Which three does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include?
(Choose three.)
A. a script triggers section
B. conditional formatting settings
C. object line, fill and effect settings
D. resizable layout object anchoring settings
E. the visibility status of fields in Table View
F. Text, Number, Date, and Time field formatting settings
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 Which five operating systems are supported for FileMaker Server 10 and FileMaker Server 10
Advanced? (Choose five.)
A. Mac OS X 10.5.4
B. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
C. Mac OS X Server 10.4.11
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows Vista Business SP1
F. Windows NT Server SP4
G. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition SP2
H. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition SP1
Answer: ACEGH

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NO.16 Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a "PDF Form" document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 10 Advanced?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
E. 999
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which three must be enabled when using FileMaker Server 10 and Web publishing on 64-bit editions
of the Windows operating system? (Choose three.)
A. ISAPI filters
B. ISAPI extensions
C. Deployment Assistant
D. Windows Addressing Mode to 32-bit only
E. Enable 32-bit mode in FileMaker Server Admin Console
F. Application pooling compatibility with 32-bit applications
Answer: ABF

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NO.19 What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which two does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include? (Choose
two.)
A. user account Saved Finds criteria
B. ODBC driver information for external data sources
C. the file path lists for external FileMaker data sources
D. the IP addresses of the servers hosting external ODBC data sources
E. account names and passwords for the FileMaker file(s) being analyzed
F. user names and passwords assigned to DSNs used for external data sources
Answer: CF

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NO.21 Which two statements are true about windows in a FileMaker database? (Choose two.)
A. A given user may have a maximum of 100 windows open concurrently.
B. Creation of a new window will activate an OnLayoutLoad script trigger.
C. On the Windows platform, only the currently active window can be maximized.
D. The Adjust Window script step can be used to move a window to a location specified by a calculation
formula.
Answer: BC

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NO.22 According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD

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NO.23 What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D

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NO.24 What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B

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NO.25 A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the maximum size of a calculation formula, including text and numbers, any referenced fields,
operators, functions, and parentheses?
A. 1,024 characters
B. 8,000 characters
C. 16,000 characters
D. 30,000 characters
E. 32,000 characters
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which ports must be open when FileMaker Server 10 is on one machine to provide just database
services and full administration console functionality?
A. 5003,16000,16001
B. 5006, 16000,16001
C. 80, 5003,16000,16001
D. 80, 5006,16001,16004
E. 591, 5006,16001,16004
Answer: A

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NO.28 What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC

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NO.30 Which two statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips will function in Find mode.
B. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object.
C. Tooltip text can only incorporate field data that is stored.
D. A tooltip defined by the formula = $tooltip can only display its message when a script is running (or
paused).
E. Tooltips can only be created or modified using FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced, though they will function in
a file opened by FileMaker Pro 10.
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: VCP-310
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI3)
Questions et réponses: 435 Q&As

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NO.1 The users will use the software to edit memory settings after the virtual machine is installed.

NO.2 An ESX Administrator is configuring a VMware High Availability Cluster for three hosts and their
resident VMs. The HA cluster will be configured to support a single host failure and resource
considerations must be enforced during a failover event. To accomplish this task:
Select the best response.
A. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the highest CPU limit value
B. There must be enough cluster resources based on memory and CPU reservations to account for any
potential host failure
C. Each host in the cluster must be able to accommodate the VM with the largest configured available
memory
D. All potential remaining hosts during a failure event must be able to accommodate the sum total of all
VMs' available memory configurations
Answer: B

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NO.3 Virtual machine performance and high availability are more important than keeping costs low.

NO.4 How does ESX Server 3.5 differ from VMware Server 2?
Select the best response.
A. ESX Server 3.5 supports virtual machine clusters on the host server and VMware Server 2 does not.
B. ESX Server 3.5 accesses SAN storage and VMware Server 2 does not.
C. ESX Server 3.5 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and VMware Server 2 does not.
D. ESX Server 3.5 deploys a virtual machine from a template and VMware Server 2 does not.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are requirements for a VMware HA cluster? (Choose Two)
A. a private Ethernet network for all hosts
B. access to shared storage from all hosts
C. access to the virtual machine networks from all hosts
D. identical type and quantity of CPUs in each host
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which of the following products are part of the VMware Infrastructure 3 software suite?
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware Virtual Desktop Manager
B. VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler
C. VMware Update Manager
D. VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: BC

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NO.7 These machines WILL be run in production and WILL be used or managed remotely.
What is the correct solution based on these criteria?
Select the best response.
A. give the users VMware VirtualCenter Client 2.x and grant them permission to create virtual machines
on an ESX Server 3.x, with access to all necessary operating system ISOs
B. give the users VMware Workstation 6.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
C. give the users VMware Server 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
D. give the users VMware Player 2.x and all necessary operating system CDs or ISOs
Answer: A

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4. Which of the following is a benefit of ESX Server 3i over ESX Server?
Select the best response.
A. Increased Security and Reliability
B. Memory Overcommitment
C. Improved Fault Isolation
D. Dynamic Resource Allocation
Answer: A

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5. How does ESX Server 3.x differ from VMware Server?
A. ESX Server 3.x supports 64-bit guest operating systems and VMware Server 2.x does not.
B. ESX Server 3.x supports VMware VirtualCenter and VMware Server 2.x does not.
C. ESX Server 3.x supports Intel Virtualization Technology (VT) and VMware Server 2.x does not.
D. ESX Server 3.x supports 4 processor Virtual SMP and VMware Server 2.x does not.
Answer: D

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6. How does VMware Server 2 differ from ESX Server 3.5?
Select the best response.
A. VMware Server 2 supports legacy operating systems and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
B. VMware Server 2 enhances software development and testing and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
C. VMware Server 2 runs on a Linux host and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
D. VMware Server 2 supports up to 128 GB of RAM and ESX Server 3.5 does not.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true about VCB proxy?
Select the best response.
A. It must be set to assign Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
B. It must be set to prevent assignment of Windows drive letters to prevent data corruption.
C. When running under Linux, it has no concept of Windows drive letter mappings.
D. It assigns Windows drive letters to Raw Device Mapped LUNs that are assigned to Windows virtual
machines.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A company decides to explore virtualization options for one of their departments. Their environment
and requirements are:
1. The users should be able to create their own virtual machines
2. The users are running Windows XP on their desktops.
3. Several virtual machines will be set up for each user and they should be able to run them all at the
same time.

NO.10 For a cluster with two ESX hosts, one using Intel processors and other using AMD processors, which
of the following statements is true? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMotion can move live VMs from one host to another
B. VMware DRS can load balance live VMs among hosts
C. Storage VMotion can move a virtual machine disk file from one storage device to another
D. VMware HA can failover VMS from one host to another in case of a host failure
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which of the following files are part of a typical virtual machine?
Select 3 response(s).
A. Virtual Disk File (.vmdk)
B. Configuration File (.vmx)
C. VMotion Transfer File (.vmt)
D. Hardware File (.svr)
E. BIOS File (.nvram)
Answer: ABE

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NO.12 What is the advantage of installing backup client software in a Linux virtual machine's guest OS?
Select the best response.
A. This configuration enables immediate booting from a restored virtual machine.
B. This configuration enables LAN-free backup.
C. This configuration enables ESX Server to do backup and restore operations.
D. This configuration enables individual files to be selected for backup or restore.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESX Server 3.x instead of using VMware
Server 2? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The company needs the ability to run dual-processor virtual machines.
B. VMware Server 2 does not support running virtual machines in a production environment.
C. The company wants the ability to use VMotion.
D. ESX Server 3.x offers better resource management and better performance.
Answer: CD

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NO.14 What are two advantages of VCB over conventional agent-based methods of backing up a virtual
machine's (VM's) data? (Choose Two)
A. helps to eliminate the need for a backup window by using an online, snapshot-based backup
B. makes it possible to do both file-based and full-system backup of the same VM simultaneously
C. enables LAN-free backup and avoids undue overloading of the datacenter network
D. allows selection of files and directories from the guest file system of any VM
Answer: AC

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NO.15 Which of the following conditions can prevent a virtual machine (VM) that is part of a VMware HA
cluster from being powered on? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Guaranteed admission control cannot allocate sufficient CPU reservation for the VM.
B. The VM has been configured with a virtual disk on local storage.
C. Strict admission control is configured and insufficient resources are available for the VM.
D. There is a mismatch in CPU capabilities between one or more HA cluster nodes.
Answer: BC

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NO.16 What are two characteristics of VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. LAN-free backups of virtual machines can be performed
B. A plugin integrates the VCB UI into VirtualCenter
C. Image-level backups of virtual machines can be performed
D. File-level backups of Windows and Linux virtual machines can be performed
Answer: AC

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NO.17 In configuring a VMware HA Cluster the System Administrator can configure Admission Control.
There are two options: Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints, or Allow
Virtual Machines to be powered on even if they violate availability constraints. If the System
Administrator chooses the option "Do not power on Virtual Machines if they violate availability constraints"
then which of the following apply? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. VMware HA enforces the failover capacity defined for the cluster.
B. Only Virtual Machines with a high restart priority will be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
C. VMware HA restarts VM's on surviving host with the most unreserved capacity.
D. Virtual Machines running on failed ESX hosts will not be restarted on surviving ESX hosts.
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which of the following are required for installing VMware Consolidated Backup? (Choose Two)
A. the server must be a physical machine
B. the operating system must be Windows
C. the server can be a physical or a virtual machine
D. the operating system can be Windows or Linux
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which two conditions can cause a combined VMware DRS/HA cluster to change to a red status?
(Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The current failover capacity is smaller than the configured capacity.
B. All the primary hosts in the cluster are not responding.
C. A DRS-only host has been added to an HA cluster.
D. DRS is in the process of balancing resources among hosts in the cluster when an HA event occurs.
Answer: AB

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NO.20 Which of the following situations will result in VMware HA restarting virtual machines? (Choose Two)
Select 2 response(s).
A. An ESX Server in the cluster becomes isolated from the network.
B. A guest OS is manually powered off.
C. A guest OS fails.
D. An ESX Server in the cluster is put into Maintenance mode.
Answer: AC

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Code d'Examen: VCP-510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VSphere 5)
Questions et réponses: 310 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.14 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.16 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.17 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.18 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.20 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: VCP510-DT
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 - Desktop )
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three required permissions that need to be assigned to the View Composer user account?
(Choose three.)
A. Create User Accounts
B. Create Computer Objects
C. Delete Group Accounts
D. Delete Computer Objects
E. Write All Properties
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 Which three items must be configured prior to installing a View Security Server? (Choose three.)
A. Connection Server
B. Security Server External URL
C. Security Server Firewall Exceptions
D. Security Server Pairing Password
E. Security Server Static IP address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 What is the proper syntax to use when adding a domain user to the View Composer configuration?
A. DOMAIN\USER
B. DOMAIN.COM\USER
C. OU=DOMAIN, CN=USER
D. USER@DOMAIN.COM
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 An administrator is installing a View Security Server on a Windows Server 2003 R2 system.
Which three Windows Firewall ports must be pre-configured prior to installation to enable remote access?
(Choose three.)
A. 443
B. 3389
C. 4001
D. 4172
E. 8009
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections.?
(Choose three.)
A. Active Directory Connections
B. View Connection Broker Connections
C. Replicas created by the View Composer
D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer
E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 An administrator is preparing to install a View Connection Server 5.x for the first time.
Which two server prerequisites are required for a proper installation on Windows Server 2003? (Choose
two.)
A. Configure a SSL certificate for use with the Connection Server.
B. Configure a static IP address on the server.
C. Configure a domain administrator account for installation.
D. Configure the firewall with the appropriate open ports.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two operating systems are supported for the View Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 An administrator is adding a replicated instance of View Connection Server to the environment silently.
Which MSI property would be used to identify the instance being replicated?
A. ADAM_PRIMARY_INSTANCE
B. ADAM_PRIMARY_NAME
C. VDM_INSTANCE_NAME
D. VDM_SERVER_INSTANCE
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which TCP port must be open on the firewall of the View Transfer Server?
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5
environment? (Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.13 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a View Connection
Server and the vCenter Server running View Composer? (Choose two.)
A. 18443
B. 443
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three replica servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
A. Three replica servers can result in client connection problems.
B. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
C. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment?
(Choose two.)
A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit
C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit
D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 What is the minimum required level of privileges required to install the View Connection Server?
A. Domain User
B. Domain Administrator
C. Local Power User
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.18 How many disks can a View Transfer Server concurrently transfer?
A. 15
B. 60
C. 4
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator is creating a new virtual machine for use as a View Transfer Server.
Which SCSI controller should be selected?
A. Buslogic Parallel
B. LSI Logic Parallel
C. LSI Logic SAS
D. VMware Paravirtual
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two operating systems are supported for a View Transfer Server installation? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: VCAD510
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Data Center Virtualization (VCA-DCV) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a VMware environment and you have noticed that the storage capacity of your
datastores varies widely. You would like to maximize the storage environment by balancing the
space utilization across each of the datastores. Which of the following is a viable solution?
A. Storage I/O Control
B. vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
C. vSphere APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (SDRS)
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vmw-vsphr-5-1-stor-drs-uslet-101-web.pdf(page 5,
first para)

NO.2 You work in a highly regulated, secure environment. You have been tasked with finding a
solution that will analyze the environment and report on any changes in the environment to ensure
you meet the compliance requirements in your industry. Which VMware product can help to
provide this solution?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Change Management
C. vCenter Configuration Manager
D. vCloud Director
Answer: C

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Reference:
ehttp://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware_vCenter_Configuration_Manager_Datasheet__Englis
h .pdf

NO.3 You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and
many small stores. You want to make sure that data in the stores gets copied to the main data center.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
C. vSphere Replication (VR)
D. VSA
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/vSphere-Replication

NO.4 You are explaining to your manager the different types of storage devices supported in
vSphere. You explain that some devices are block-based, while others are file-based. Which of the
following is a file-based storage type?
A. NFS
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C. Fibre Channel
D. iSCSI
Answer: A

VMware   VCAD510 examen   VCAD510
Reference:http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/magazineContent/Block-vs-file-storage-to-supportvi
rtual-server-environments

NO.5 You manage a cluster of ESXi hosts using vCenter Server. You notice that some ESXi hosts are
more heavily burdened than others. Which feature of vCenter server will potentially help automate
the load balancing of the ESXi hosts?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. Distributed Power Management
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
D. High Availability
Answer: C

VMware   VCAD510   VCAD510
Reference:http://www.vmware.com/support/vsphere5 /doc/vsp_vc50_u2_rel_notes.html(search for
DRS)

NO.6 What is a scalability challenge that vSphere can address?
A. Change management processes are simplified
B. Automatic balancing of virtual machines after adding new physical servers
C. Easier disaster recovery processes
D. Users have self-service provisioning of virtual machine workloads
Answer: B

VMware   VCAD510 examen   VCAD510
Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/Whats-New-VMware-vSphere-51-Platform
-Technical-Whitepaper.pdf(page 12)

NO.7 Which vSphere feature allows for more efficient storage usage?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Storage vMotion
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/Storage-with-VMware-vSphere.pdf

NO.8 You are a consultant and your newest client is concerned about the visibility of performance
and capacity related information to help them manage their new VMware environment more
efficiently. Which of the following will enable them to be proactive in their monitoring?
A. Scheduled PowerShell scripts to gather performance data
B. vCenter Operations Manager (vC OPS)
C. vCenter advanced performance charts
D. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.epubbud.com/read.php?g=8MVD69ZN&tocp=25

NO.9 You are considering using virtual machines for your new corporate email servers. You are
giving examples to your manager of the benefits this will provide. Which two examples are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines can be reverted to prior states to make recovery from accidents simpler.
B. Virtual machines perform faster than physical machines using the same hardware.
C. Virtual machines allow you to add components such as network cards and hard disks while the
VM is running.
D. Virtual machines automatically increase and decrease their allocated memory while running.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What does virtualization do?
A. Converts hardware into software
B. Converts software into hardware
C. Causes your servers to consume less power
D. Causes your servers to run lighter workloads
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your manager wants to know how virtual machines are going to benefit the organization.
What two statements accurately explain what virtual machines do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow users to recover deleted files themselves.
B. Reduce your application licensing costs.
C. Provide higher up time than physical servers.
D. Reduce the number of physical servers.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which VMware product allows for non-disruptive disaster recovery testing?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vSphere Replication
C. Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager
Answer: C

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Reference:https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/

NO.13 You have a vSphere cluster managed by vCenter. One of the VMs is running a critical
application that is very sensitive to unplanned or sudden reboots. You wish to protect this VM from
potential data loss. Which of the following features will help you?
A. vSphere Replication
B. Fault Tolerance (FT)
C. High Availability (HA)
D. vMotion
Answer: B

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Reference:http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/virtualization/w/wiki/vmware-vsphere-fault
tolerance.aspx

NO.14 You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked
what role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a
datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine's files are stored
Answer: D

VMware   VCAD510   VCAD510   VCAD510   VCAD510 examen   VCAD510

NO.15 Your manager asks you: "What is the relationship between vMotion and VMware's High
Availability (HA) feature?" What do you tell him?
A. vMotion uses VMware's High Availability (HA) feature to move the VMs while they are running.
B. VMware's High Availability (HA) feature uses vMotion to move the VMs after a failure.
C. There is no interdependency between these two features.
D. Either feature only functions if the VMs are powered off.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://communities.vmware.com/thread/ 405330?start=0&tstart=0

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