2014年2月27日星期四

Guide de formation plus récente de Legato EE2-181

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Code d'Examen: EE2-181
Nom d'Examen: Legato (Certified EmailXtender Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 What will enabling "Remove Duplicate" prior to performing a search accomplish?
A. removes duplicate instances of a message from the archive
B. returns only messages that are not a part of a distribution list
C. returns only the first instance of a message sent to a distribution list
D. removes duplicate instances of a message from the information store
E. removes duplicate instances of a message from the search results page
Answer: E

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NO.2 What is NOT indexed by EmailXtender?
A. Zip files
B. PDF files
C. JPEG files
D. Microsoft Visio documents
E. Microsoft Word documents
Answer: C

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NO.3 A bank has requested a sizing estimate for their email archive:
The bank has provided the following details:
The number of users = 11000
Average message size = 100KB
Average number of messages per day = 35
Number of days per work week = 5
Number of weeks per year = 51
Constants:
EmailXtender compression ratio = 50%
EmailXtender index ratio = 10%
Hourly throughput of EmailXtender Server = 1 GB/Hour
1 TB = 1024 GB
1GB = 1024 MB
1 MB = 1024 KB
How much email (GB) does the bank transmit in a given year?
A. 9363 GB
B. 9818 GB
C. 13401 GB
D. 14053 GB
Answer: A

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NO.4 A securities company has 4000 users split between Paris, Zurich, and London. Each
site has two Domino servers and a connection to the internet for incoming and
outgoing email. The connections between the sites are highly-speed and utilization is
moderate.
What should you do to ensure that all communications are forwarded to the
Emailxtender server?
A. You install Emailxtender in Paris and use EmailXtract to gather all email from all
Domain servers at night when traffic slows down.
B. You install a central EmailXtender server in Paris, Install the EmailEtender Domino
installer on all Domino servers, and configure EmailXtender to pull from all mail servers.
C. You install a central EmailXtender server in Paris, install the listener only on the Paris
servers. You create a task in EmailXtract to pull all email from London and Zurich at
night when traffic slows down.
D. You install an EmailXtender server at each site. Since each site has its own connection
to the internet, this configuration will be required to assure that incoming, outgoing, and
site specific email will be captured.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statement are true about the Deletion Task? (choose two)
A. The Deletion Task can be run in simulation mode.
B. The Deletion Task can remove messages from the mail servers message stores
C. The Deletion Task can archive messages without removing them from the mail server.
D. The Deletion Task can shortcut messages before removing them from the mail server.
E. The Deletion Task can remove messages from the EmailXtender archives and the mail
server.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which product feature can be leveraged to perform archival of historical email
messages from restored back-up tapes in response to a legal discovery request?
A. EmailXtract's archive task
B. EmailXtract's ANALYSIS TASK
C. EmailXtender's search client
D. EmailXtender's message review function
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does the EmailXtender Domain listner function on Windows platforms?
A. It links into the mail.box and makes an entry in the notes.InI file.
B. The Domino milter is turned on during the installation of the listener
C. It listens on SMTP port 25 and intercepts all incoming and outgoing email.
D. It is triggered by a "at_msg_post" evnt to copy content from user;s NSF files
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does LEGATO recommend you configure before enabling journaling in
Exchange? (Choose three)
A. archive tasks
B. shortcut tasks
C. exclusive rules
D. collection rules
E. sample periods
F. retention periods
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.9 Certkiller .com has 8,000 mailbox in two locations: 5,500 at site A and 2,500 at site B.
They plan to capture all messages in a central location.
How many servers should they have and how should they deploy them?
A. one server in site A
B. two servers in site A
C. one server in site A and 1 server in site B
D. two servers in site A and one servers in site B
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which report provides details about sampling settings and message review group
membership?
A. Configuration report
B. Group Activity report
C. Message Detail report
D. Group Membership report
Answer: A

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Juniper meilleur examen JN0-201, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JN0-201
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet associate.m(jncia-m))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 If all OSPF routers on a broadcast network have the same OSPF priority, what parameter is used to
determine the new BDR at the time of a DR failure?
A. area ID
B. router ID
C. loopback address
D. IP address of interface on broadcast network
Answer: B

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NO.2 During OSPF adjacency formation, in what state is a router when it is negotiating to be in charge of the
database synchronization process?
A. Init
B. 2Way
C. ExStart
D. Exchange
Answer: C

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NO.3 How do you enable interface fe-0/0/0 under the [edit protocols isis] level to form both a Level 1 and
Level 2 adjacency?
A. set interface fe-0/0/0.0
B. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 all level
C. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 3 enable
D. set interface fe-0/0/0.0 level 1 level 2
Answer: A

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NO.4 Three IS-IS routers on a broadcast segment have different priority values configured. Which router is
elected the DIS on that broadcast segment?
A. the router with the lowest priority
B. the router with the highest priority
C. the router with the highest System ID
D. the router with the highest IP address
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the three components of the ISO NET address? (Choose three.)
A. Area ID
B. N-selector
C. System ID
D. AS number
E. ISO number
F. MAC address
Answer: ABC

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NO.7 What is the first step in BGP route selection?
A. The local router prefers the route with the shortest AS_PATH.
B. The router first verifies that it has a route to the BGP Next Hop IP address.
C. The local router prefers the route from the peer with the lowest peer ID address.
D. The local router prefers the route learned from an EBGP peer over a route learned from an IBGP peer.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two purposes of the AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two.)
A. route selection
B. loop avoidance
C. determining equal cost paths for reachablilty
D. defining the application of other BGP attributes
Answer: AB

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NO.9 By default, which command can be used to display information about packets that have been logged
with the syslog firewall filter action?
A. show log
B. show firewall
C. show log messages
D. show firewall log
Answer: C

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NO.10 Once the TCP connection is established, which message type initiates the BGP peering process?
A. Open
B. Active
C. Update
D. Keepalive
E. Notification
Answer: A

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NO.11 What command would you use to view an IS-IS adjacency?
A. show iso neighbor
B. show isis neighbor
C. show iso adjacency
D. show isis adjacency
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are two ways that a valid IBGP peering session can be configured? (Choose two.)
A. via the accept x.x/y command
B. via TCP reachable physical interface addresses
C. via remote loopbacks with the local-address command
D. via UDP with the neighbor x.x.x.x command at the group level
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Firewall filters can be used to accept, discard, or reject packets based on _____. (Choose three.)
A. protocol type
B. MAC address
C. TCP or UDP port
D. source and destination IP address
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Which CLI command is used to see the current OSPF link-state database?
A. show ospf database
B. show ospf neighbor
C. show protocols ospf
D. show ospf link-state
Answer: A

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NO.15 How often are IS-IS Hello packets transmitted?
A. 3 seconds for DIS; 9 seconds for non-DIS
B. 9 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
C. 10 seconds for DIS; 3 seconds for non-DIS
D. 10 seconds for all routers
Answer: A

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NO.16 Assume that a comparable configuration is applied to your peer in AS 11 and that bi-directional TCP
reachability has been achieved. Which EBGP configuration will allow the BGP session to become
established?
A. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
neighbor 10.0.3.6 { peer-as 11; } } }
B. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer1 { type external;
peer-as 11;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
C. routing-options { autonomous-system 11; } protocols { bgp { group external-peer11 { type external;
peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } group external-peer11 { type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor
10.0.3.6; } } type external; peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 64;{ neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
D. routing-options { }
E. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
F. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; }
G. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols {
H. routing-options { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp { autonomous-system 64; } protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { } protocols { bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; protocols { bgp
{ group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; protocols { bgp { group external-peer101
{ peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } bgp { group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
group external-peer101 { peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } peer-as 101; neighbor 10.0.3.6; } }
neighbor 10.0.3.6; } } } } }
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the purpose of the OSPF link-state update packet?
A. describes a change to the OSPF hello timer
B. carries one or more link-state advertisements
C. establishes and maintains neighbor relationships
D. describes the contents of the entire link-state database
Answer: B

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NO.18 What type of OSPF router is responsible for redistributing routes into OSPF?
A. ABR
B. ASBR
C. internal router
D. backbone router
Answer: B

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NO.19 Two Level 2 routers are exchanging Hello packets with different Area IDs. What occurs between these
routers?
A. An Adjacency forms.
B. An Adjacency does not form.
C. An Adjacency forms but traffic is not forwarded.
D. No IS-IS PDUs are sent.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A firewall filter is applied as an input filter on a transit interface. What three types of traffic will this affect?
(Chose three.)
A. inbound traffic transiting the router
B. outbound traffic transiting the router
C. traffic destined to the Routing Engine
D. traffic destined to the interface address on which the filter is applied
Answer: ACD

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Code d'Examen: JN0-560
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate.....)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 JSAM starts, but the client cannot connect:
Which two questions should you consider when troubleshooting this problem?
(Choose Two)
A. is ActiveX allowed in browser?
B. Is the user logged in under the correct account?
C. Does the user have a personal firewall blocking 127x.x.x?
D. Has the host file been rewritten to redirect the traffic to a loopback address?
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Cache Cleaner is primarily used to:
A. Determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
B. Remove web content downloaded during the remote access session
C. Remove web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. Prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a drawback of using Application Layer Access?
A. limited auding
B. OS/JVM compatibility issues
C. Only TCP/IP level authorization
D. Limited resource access o enterprise web applications and resource
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to provide support for at least 100 Web connections but want to plan for
a total of 500 simultaneous as part of the growth plan.
Which is the least expensive model of the Secure Access product that meets this
requirement?
A. RA500
B. SA1000
C. SA3000
D. SA5000
E. SM3000
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the serial console? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tcpdump
C. trace route
D. view arp cache
E. add routing table entries
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 On an IVE in the default configuration, which URL is valid for administrator
access?
A. http://192.168.1.1
B. https://192.168.1.1
C. http://192.168.1.1/admin
D. https://192.168.1.1/admin
E. https://192.168.1.1/console
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a shortcoming of Core Access?
A. limited auditing
B. no kiosk access
C. limited resource access
D. requires installation privileges
Answer: C

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NO.8 You install Central Manager and now want to filter your logs to extract
information about system events.
What is the easiest way to create simple log filters?
A. You type the query in by hand in the Edit query field, then select Update.
B. You create the query in the query field using the filer variables Dictionary.
C. In the log display, you click on a field containing the value you want to use as a filter.
D. The Central Manager does not allow for customized logging. You must by a special
license to perform log filtering.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two can you change via the sign-in page menu option? (Choose two)
A. authorization server
B. authentication realms
C. custom HML file for help
D. text for login screen display
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 What are two possible reasons for WSAM not starting on the client? (choose two)
A. Java is disabled in the browser
B. Active x is disabled in the browser
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. There is a possible conflict with other LSP-based applications like IPSec, VPN clients
or Spyware.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which three troubleshooting tools are available from the GUI? (Choose three)
A. ping
B. snoop
C. debug
D. tcpdump
E. trace route
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.12 A user is not getting access to needed resources. They are currently unavailable to
work with directly.
What information do you need to use the simulation tool to work on their problem?
(choose three)
A. remain
B. resource
C. username
D. role mapping
E. user password
F. admin override password
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 What are two functions performed by the inermediation engine?
A. Authorization :This function insures users trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then forwards requests o the inside server using those credentials.
B. Authentication: This function insures user trying to access the IVE are who they say
they are and then intermediates requests to the inside server using those credentials.
C. Transformer: This function can modify the "chunked" data stream before it passes he
data to the request handlers. Transformers modify internal URLs, HTML markup and
scripts to refer to "virtual"URLs/markup/scripts sourced from the IVE appliances.
D. Parser: This function processes data streams into chunks that can be manipulated by
the transformers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Which three logs are default log files on the IVE system? (Choose three)
A. Event log
B. Traffic log
C. System log
D. User Access log
E. Admin Access log
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.15 What are two strength of SSL? (Choose two)
A. SSL is familiar o most users.
B. SSL does no need to be installed or configured.
C. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather
than the applicationlayer.
D. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure
than that of an IPSec clien.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which of the following elements can you NO modify on the sign-in page?
A. prompts
B. error messages
C. button text
D. screen size
E. logo
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two features are available on an unlicensed IVE? (choose two)
A. SAM
B. File access via a Web interface
C. Ten user access
D. Web access
E. Network Connect
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the sing-in policy?
A. The Sign-in Policy controls whether or not a user can sign-in based on role
membership
B. The sign-in policy defines the URLs that users and administrator can use to access the
IVE.
C. The Sign-in Policy controls which options are available on the login screen based on
the users permissions.
D. The Sign-in Policy controls who can actually get to the login page, based on IP
address, certificate information,Host checker and other criteria
Answer: B

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NO.19 A user is not being authenticated properly and has called you for help.
Which two tools help you determine the cause? (Choose two)
A. policy trace
B. policy simulation
C. User Access logs
D. Admin Access logs
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 Host Checker is primarily used to:
A. Remove unwanted files from the remote machine
B. Determine the surety posture of the remote machine
C. Distribute software posture to the remote machine
D. Capture sign in credentials of the remote user
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JN0-360
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
Questions et réponses: 252 Q&As

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NO.1 In which environment would you run BGP?
A. a company spread across multiple floors of a building
B. a company with a single office
C. a home network
D. the public Internet
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about MPLS VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. With Layer 3 VPNs, the provider's routers participate in the customer's Layer 3 routing.
B. MPLS VPNs are designed to run over private networks rather than the public Internet.
C. With Layer 2 VPNs, the provider does not participate in the routing of the customer's private IP
traffic.
D. MPLS VPN tunnels are always encrypted.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 What are Martian addresses on a Junos device?
A. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with MPLS VPNs.
B. IP addresses that are never installed in the routing table.
C. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with GRE tunnels.
D. IP addresses specifically used for out-of-band management.
Answer: A

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7. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a generated and an aggregate
route?
A. An aggregate route can be a supernet whereas generated routes are classful.
B. A generated route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
C. An aggregate route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
D. Only aggregate routes can be re-advertised through BGP using a policy.
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true regarding the default master routing instance?
A. All IPv4 routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
B. Interface routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
C. Routes in the master routing instance are not shared with user-defined routing instances.
D. All routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
Answer: C

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9. Which routing table contains the route information for the user-defined routing instance
called Candidate1?
A. inet.Candidate1.0
B. Candidate1.inet.0
C. inet.0
D. Candidate1-inet.0
Answer: B

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10. Which two routing-instance types are used for non-VPN-related applications? (Choose two.)
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. vpls
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 For a network running single-area OSPF, how would you decrease the size of the link-state
database (LSDB)?
A. Implement RIP as an overlay protocol on all devices.
B. Add more devices to the OSPF network to help with LSDB processing.
C. Reduce the frequency of hello timers throughout the network.
D. Implement OSPF areas.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which label operation is performed by an MPLS transit router?
A. inject
B. pop
C. push
D. swap
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Junos platform supports provider bridging?
A. T Series devices
B. SRX Series devices
C. MX Series devices
D. MAG Series devices
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JN0-380
Nom d'Examen: Juniper (Wireless LAN, Specialist (JNCIS-WLAN))
Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the hardware requirement for a RingMaster client?
A. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
B. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
C. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 1024 MB HD space
D. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 1.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
Answer: A

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6. During the installation of RingMaster, you receive the installation error: "HTTPS Server port is
already in use. Please select another port."
What should you do to resolve this issue?
A. Change the HTTPS Server port number to 443.
B. Change the HTTPS Server port number so that it does not conflict with other applications.
C. Restart the installation process so that RingMaster can resolve the issue.
D. Change the SNMP Trap Receiver port to 162.
Answer: B

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7. You are asked to troubleshoot a communication problem between a WLC and a RADIUS server.
You verified that the RADIUS server is reachable from the WLC.
Which WLC CLI command would be used for troubleshooting RADIUS connectivity?
A. rfping
B. show authentication
C. ping
D. radping
Answer: D

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8. In an auditorium, you have 200 wireless clients connecting to the wireless network. You want
to
configure RF load balancing to distribute client sessions across multiple APs in the area.
Which two parameters are configurable to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. setting strictness
B. configuring auto-tune
C. defining transmit rates
D. setting band preference
Answer: A,D

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9. You want to provide secure wireless services to one set of clients on your network and allow
open
access services to your guest clients. You need to configure service profiles for each type of
access to the network.
Which three methods are used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. Configure one service per WLA.
B. Configure an encryption type.
C. Configure IP addresses.
D. Configure SSIDs.
E. Configure VLANs.
Answer: B,D,E

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10. Multiple users are complaining that their wireless connections are not working.
Which RingMaster screen would the administrator use for troubleshooting?
A. Alarms
B. Clients
C. Monitor
D. Verification
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the maximum allowed configurable SSIDs per radio?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Juniper Networks WLA model supports spectrum analysis?
A. WLA371
B. WLA422
C. WLA532
D. WLA632
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have installed your AP in the proper location on your network. The AP needs to obtain
configuration information from a controller before it can support wireless clients.
What are three methods that an AP uses to do this? (Choose three.)
A. ICMP ping
B. Keepalive packets
C. DNS Lookup
D. L2 Broadcast
E. DHCP Option 43
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 A user repeatedly calls in to the Help desk complaining about their wireless connection.
Which actions would test the user's wireless connectivity from RingMaster?
A. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the Location History option to find out if the client is near a functioning access point.
B. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the RF ping test to determine RSSI and retry counts to verify the RF environment being
reported by the AP to which the client is connected.
C. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
choose to terminate the client from the wireless network so they can reestablish a new session.
D. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
add the client to the Watched Client list to gather additional data on the clients signal strength and
data throughput.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 630-007
Nom d'Examen: ISM (C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies)
Questions et réponses: 285 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following represents the BEST strategy for minimizing price risk in a
falling market?
A. Hedging.
B. Forward buying.
C. Hand-to-mouth buying.
D. Buying to requirements.
Answer. C

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NO.2 Which of the following criteria would a project or process targeted for improvement
generally NOT meet?
A. It is in the process of change.
B. It is relevant to a key product or service issue.
C. It is within the control or influence of the team.
D. It is likely to contribute to organizational goals.
Answer. A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. An operational lease has a non-cancelable term varying from hours to years.
B. An operational lease is a total financial commitment by the lessor.
C. In operational leases, payments are fixed payments per period.
D. Operational leases stress service.
Answer. B

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NO.4 Which of the following represents the MOST common reason for a public or
nonprofit corporation to use lease/purchase agreements to obtain equipment?
A. To gain tax advantages.
B. To avoid capital expenditures.
C. To reduce maintenance needs.
D. To gain depreciation advantages.
Answer. B

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NO.5 Which of the following do NOT provide economic forecasts?
A. ISM Report On Business(r).
B. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
C. Department of Commerce.
D. Thomas Register.
Answer. D

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NO.6 Which of the following should a purchaser utilize when there is a need to minimize
financial risk in a sensitive market?
A. Cash flow management.
B. Long-term relationships.
C. Market demand analysis.
D. Hedging using futures contracts.
Answer. D

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NO.7 Which of the following is the FIRST step in standardization?
A. Collecting data.
B. Simplifying standards.
C. Establishing objectives.
D. Publicizing the program.
Answer. A

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NO.8 Which of the following are the two basic categories of costs associated with
inventories from a management point of view?
A. Supplies and services costs.
B. Storage and incremental costs.
C. Carrying costs and acquisition costs.
D. Obsolescence and deterioration costs.
Answer. C

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NO.9 Which of the following should generally make a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. Engineering Management.
B. Purchasing Management.
C. Production Management.
D. General Management.
Answer. D

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NO.10 What is generally the PRIMARY motivation for outsourcing in the health care
sector?
A. To reduce technological risk.
B. To shift patient liability.
C. To reduce labor costs.
D. To implement JIT.
Answer. C

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NO.11 Which of the following can be used to spot abnormalities in a process, as well as
compare actual measurements to customer or engineering specifications, and show
if a distribution is centered at an expected place?
A. Pareto charts.
B. Area graphs.
C. Histograms.
D. Pie graphs.
Answer. C

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate consideration when seeking to
mitigate seasonal capacity issues?
A. Safety stock levels.
B. Transportation costs.
C. Forecasting accuracy.
D. Seasonal sales forecasts.
Answer. B

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NO.13 When would a purchasing manager generally use a third-party lease as a financing
instrument?
A. When purchasing equipment from the manufacturer with someone else's money.
B. When acquiring equipment from one party and maintenance from another.
C. When arranging an assignment agreement with a bank.
D. When transferring the asset to the internal customer.
Answer. A

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NO.14 Which of the following favors making the part in a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. When design secrecy is required.
B. When volume requirements are small.
C. When production facilities are limited.
D. When there is a desire to maintain a multiple-source policy.
Answer. A

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NO.15 You work as a purchaser at KillTest. You are negotiating a contract for which
production and delivery will be stretched out over a 24-month period. You want to
get the best price. Which of the following should you include in the contract?
A. A provision to accept all material produced under the contract.
B. A provision to cover changes in rates for material and labor.
C. A provision to eliminate penalties for late deliveries.
D. A provision to cover unforeseen production delays.
Answer. B

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NO.16 Which of the following represents the MAIN reason why a fully documented
permanent summary record of a "make-or-buy" analysis should be maintained?
A. To respond to charges of favoritism by unsuccessful bidders.
B. To serve as a useful source of information in future situations.
C. To support cost-of-goods-sold (CGS) figures for tax purposes.
D. To justify the participation of all departments that were involved in the analysis.
Answer. C

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NO.17 Which of the following is the MOST commonly sought-after piece of inventory
information?
A. The date the inventory is taken.
B. The current price of the items.
C. Inventory I.D. numbers.
D. Quantities.
Answer. D

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NO.18 When is the timing of purchases MOST important?
A. When a market has price and supply stability.
B. When a market has price and supply instability.
C. When a market has unstable supply with predictable prices.
D. When a market has reasonably stable supply with substantial fluctuation in prices.
Answer. C

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NO.19 KillTest has been experiencing numerous stockouts on a production item.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause this problem?
A. Faulty sales forecasts.
B. Incorrect order points.
C. Increased supplier prices.
D. Problems with incoming shipments.
Answer. C

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NO.20 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between evaluation of a
product and value analysis?
A. Value analysis is more concerned with "make-or-buy" issues.
B. Evaluation of a product is more concerned with cost issues.
C. Value analysis focuses more on economy and efficiency.
D. Value analysis is more concerned with product liability.
Answer. C

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Code d'Examen: BH0-006
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
Questions et réponses: 418 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A.An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B.A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C.An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D.Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reportedWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.3 Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A.Processes and functions
B.Maturity and cost
C.The end to end service
D.Infrastructure availability WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.4 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of
all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Catalogue Management
C.Demand Management
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.5 Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?
A.Components
B.Processes
C.The end to end service
D.Customer satisfactionWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.6 The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Service Strategy
C.Service Design
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.7 Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.8 Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A.1 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.9 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Business Relationship Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Availability ManagementWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.10 The BEST definition of an Incident is:
A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
C.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.11 Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A.1 and 2 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 onlyWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.12 Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and
Partners"?
A.Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B.Customers
C.Internal departments
D.The Facilities Management function WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.13 Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A.Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B.Supplier Management and Demand Management
C.Demand Management and Service Level Management
D.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.14 Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A.Remediation Planning
B.Categorization
C.Prioritization
D.Review and Close WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.15 Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
A.Act
B.Plan
C.Do
D.Coordinate WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.16 What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.17 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service CatalogueWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.19 "Service Management is a set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.20 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Provider Type?
A.Internal service provider
B.External service provider
C.Third-party provider
D.Shared services unit WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.21 Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A.Service Design: Design the processes
B.Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service Operation: IT Operations Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.22 Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.Measurement, methods and metrics
B.Service Design Package
C.Service Portfolio Design
D.Process definitions WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.23 What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.24 In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned
by which set of activities?
A.Baseline assessments
B.Service and process improvements
C.Taking measurements and recording metrics
D.Setting measurement targetsWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.25 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.26 Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.Development, negotiation and agreement of organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.27 What would you use the seven Rs of Change Management for?
A.To assist with the impact analysis for a Change request
B.To review changes after they have been implemented
C.To allocate the roles and responsibilities during the Change Management process
D.To act as a framework for implementing a ChangeWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.28 A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.Yes
B.No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C.No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D.No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problemWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.29 A change process model should include:
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined,
including handling issues and unexpected events
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1 and 2 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.30 Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.None of the above WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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Code d'Examen: BH0-010
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.5 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.12 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.13 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.14 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.15 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.19 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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