2014年4月30日星期三

Certification Oracle de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 1z1-485, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-485
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Exadata Database Machine Models X3-2 and X3-8 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that
asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting
cellsrv.
E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the
grid disks on all cells first.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this write back flash
cache option.
C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
First of all, you don't need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell
by cell.
*drop flashcache
*Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk

NO.2 Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
1.Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
2.Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
3.Changes for security scan tools
4.Changes for Linux system performance optimization
Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. only 3 '
C. none
D. only 2
E. only 1 and 2
F. only 2 and 3
Answer: E

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Explanation:
1. The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate, fixing
possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel patches,
firmware, operation system, etc... for the Storage Server. Incorrect: 3,4: security scan tools changes
and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.

NO.3 Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the
various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
IPMI - short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface - is an interface standard that allows
remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the
Exadata Database Machine follow that. It's not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server: # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom
-U root chassis power on
To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. not reboot,
execute:# shutdown -h -y now

NO.4 Consider this CellCLI command:
CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;
Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?
A. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.
B. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.
C. It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
D. It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
E. It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
* Example: CellCLI> create griddisk all harddisk prefix=temp_dg, size=570G This command will
create 12 Griddisks, each of 570G in size from the outer (fastest) sectors of the underlying Harddisks.
It fills up the first 2 Celldisks entirely, because they have just 570G space free - the rest is already
consumed by the OS partition.
8. You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network
terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?
A. Use the ILOM Web GUI.
B. Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.
C. Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.
D. Connect by using SQL *Plus.
E. Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
In addition to gaining shell access via SSH to manage your Exadata servers, you can also access them
from the Integrated Lights Out Management (ILOM) console or KVM console.
and should typically not require modifications unless you have changed network information inside
your database machine.
Note: A KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video and mouse") is a
hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more[1] keyboard,
video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers are connected to the KVM, typically a
smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time
9. Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database
Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?
A. Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned
maintenance.
B. Database server updates can be rolled back using the the "yum downgrade" procedure.
C. Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.
D. It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First"
patching approach.
E. Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that
you use VNC or the screen utility.
F. Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus
and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.
Answer: D,E,F

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10. The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average.
What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?
A. Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.
B. Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.
C. Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.
D. A & B above
Answer: A

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NO.5 Consider the following setup:
User A1 belongs to resource group High on Database A.
User B2 belongs to resource group Low on Database B.
User C3 is a user on Database C without any DBRM setup.
DBRM setup:
Database A: Resource group High gets 80% and Low gets 20%.
Database B: Resource group High gets 60% and Low gets 40%.
IORM setup:
Database A: Share=20, limit=5
Database B: Share=30, limit=10
Database C: 5 shares
Total number of shares in the IORM setup = 100
What percent of I/O will each database user theoretically be using when the Exadata storage unit
I/O throughout is used 100% and no other databases but A, B, and C are running?
A. Al = 36%, B2=18%, and C3=9%
B. Al = 33%, B2=33%, and C3=33%
C. AI = 10%, B2=5%, and C3=20%
D. Al = 8%, B2=12%, and C3=5%
E. Al = 5%, B2=10%, and C3=85%
Answer: E

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Explanation:
IORM setup limits Database A to 5%, and Database B is limited to 10%, while
Database C has not IORM limit.
Not that the resource groups are for CPU allocation.

NO.6 A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their
CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people
"on hold" in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance
(FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW)
database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and
therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control
the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their
operations?
Which option should be implemented?
A. DBRM on the CC database
B. DBRM on all the databases
C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session
D. IORM and DBRM
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1z1-485   1z1-485   1z1-485
Explanation:
Using the Database Resource Manager, you can: Distribute available processing resources by
allocating percentages of CPU time to different users and applications. In a data warehouse, a
higher percentage may be given to ROLAP (relational on-line analytical processing) applications than
to batch jobs.

NO.7 Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?
A. owner's guide
B. Patch database in MyOracle Support
C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1
D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and
InfiniBand patches.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Before starting, we would like to share and note here two documents from My Oracle Support, aka
metalink. These notes must be the first place that you need to go to review before patching the
Exadata environment.
* (B) Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 2 (11.2) Supported Versions (Doc ID.
888828.1)
-This is for the second and third generation (V2 and X2) for Oracle Exadata, using Sun hardware.
* Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 1 (11.1) Supported Versions (Doc
ID. 835032.1)
* - This is for the first generation (V1) for Oracle Exadata, using HP hardware.

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Code d'Examen: OMG-OCUP-200
Nom d'Examen: OMG (OMG-Certified UML Professional Intermediate Exam)
Questions et réponses: 154 Q&As

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NO.1 What statement is true if a port delegates to multiple ports on subordinate components?
A. multiple delegation is not allowed
B. subordinate ports must collectively offer the delegated functionality of the delegating port
C. subordinate ports must be type compatible with the delegating port
D. at execution time, signals will be delivered from the subordinate ports to the delegating port
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does a loop node consist of?
A. clauses
B. partitions
C. parameters
D. bodyPart nodes
E. behaviors
F. guards
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is NOT a correct assertion?
A. Stereotypes extending a model element can be retracted at any time.
B. Un-applying a profile from a model deletes all related stereotypes extending the model.
C. Stereotypes extending a model element are immutable.
D. A model element can be extended by several stereotypes at the same time.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a combined fragment?
A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram
B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline
C. the combination of decomposed lifelines
D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator
Answer: D

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NO.5 For what does an interaction operator define semantics?
A. a particular interaction fragment
B. a particular interaction
C. a particular message
D. a particular combined fragment
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?
A. initial nodes
B. activity final nodes
C. merges
D. forks
E. joins
F. decisions
G. flow final nodes
Answer: G

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NO.7 When an object invokes a ReadSelfAction, what will it retrieve?
A. name of the invoking activity
B. class name of the invoking object
C. invoking object
D. attribute values and links for the invoking object
E. attribute values for the invoking object
Answer: B

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NO.8 What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. activity
B. control node
C. action
D. object node
E. state
F. behavior
Answer: D

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NO.9 When either a message m or a message q is to be sent-but not both-what kind of operator for combined
fragment would be used?
A. opt
B. par
C. alt
D. break
E. var
Answer: C

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NO.10 What characteristic does a behavior port possess?
A. owns the behavior of the classifier that owns the port
B. defines the behavior that the owning classifier must realize
C. has its own behavior that is distinct from the behavior of the classifier
D. relays any incoming messages directly to the behavior of the owning object
E. must have a protocol state machine
F. is a kind of behavior
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. State machine transitions can be triggered.
B. The classifier cannot be an association class.
C. The classifier cannot be abstract.
D. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
E. Behaviors can be executed.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. control flows
B. unidirectional associations
C. object flows
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. dependencies
Answer: C

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NO.13 What situation results from performing a CreateObjectAction on an abstract class?
A. arbitrary object of one of its subclasses being created
B. undefined behavior
C. object of the specified class being created
D. error log entry being created
E. exception being raised
Answer: B

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NO.14 Triggers on two different transitions originating from two states at different levels of the same state are
simultaneously enabled (as shown in the exhibit). What does this mean?
A. The state machine is not well-formed.
B. The less deeply nested transition takes precedence over those with more depth.
C. More deeply nested transitions take precedence over those with less depth.
D. Both transitions are taken in arbitrary order.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which relationships would make the model in the exhibit ill-formed.?
A. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via an association.
B. SpecialOrder is a subtype of Order.
C. Order is a subtype of SpecialOrder.
D. SpecialOrder and Order are related to each other via a dependency.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?
A. classifier must be abstract
B. classifier cannot be abstract
C. classifier cannot be an association class
D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]
E. type of the output pin is the classifier.
F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]
Answer: A,F

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NO.17 Assume that !p means sending message p and ?p receiving it. In the exhibit, what is true about Mneg?
A. Neither p nor q should be sent between a and b.
B. <!p, ?q, ?p, !q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
C. p and q should not be sent concurrently from a to b.
D. <!p, !q, ?p, ?q> is an invalid trace according to Mneg.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the difference between a stereotype and a metaclass?
A. A metaclass is a limited kind of a stereotype that can only be used in conjunction with one of the
stereotypes it limits.
B. Stereotypes can be specialized, but metaclasses cannot be specialized.
C. Metaclasses can be specialized, but stereotypes cannot be specialized.
D. A stereotype is a specialization of a metaclass that can be used by itself, whereas a metaclass must be
used with a stereotype.
E. A stereotype is a limited kind of a metaclass that can be only be used in conjunction with one of the
metaclasses it extends.
Answer: E

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NO.19 What indicates an artifact instance in UML notation? (Choose two)
A. class box with two smaller rectangles on its left side
B. <<artifact>> keyword
C. memo box
D. single sheet icon with a folded-over corner
E. syntactically well-formed file name
Answer: B,D

OMG   certification OMG-OCUP-200   certification OMG-OCUP-200   OMG-OCUP-200 examen

NO.20 What does reaching the terminating pseudostate mean?
A. The final state has been reached.
B. The enclosing region is completed.
C. The "do" activity of the current state has completed.
D. A completion transition has occurred.
E. The context object of the state machine is terminated.
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 050-682
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Advanced Novell Network Management )
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 .Shown are properties of the DACLUSTER object. There are applications in the
cluster that you want to load before others.
Click on the tab that will allow you to specify the order that applications load within
the cluster.
Answer:

NO.2 .There are problems when starting your NetWare 6 server.
Which command helps to identify at which point modules are loading during the server
startup?
A. LIST
B. CONFIG
C. STARTUP
D. MODULES
E. LIST STAGE
Answer: E

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NO.3 .When performing a migration to a NetWare 6 server, which are valid statements
regarding copying volumes? (Choose two)
A. The volumes cannot be compressed.
B. The source and destination server's volumes must be NSS.
C. You do not need to copy all of the volumes at the same time.
D. The source and destination server's volume size must be the same.
E. The source and destination server's volume names must be the same.
Answer: C, E

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NO.4 .If an object is missing a mandatory attribute, how will this object be displayed in
ConsoleOne?
A. As a grayed-out object.
B. As a black-and-white object.
C. As a mark in a circle.
D. As a mar in a square.
E. As two numbers with a dash between them (eg. 9-6).
Answer: C

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NO.5 .You want to modify your NCS environment by changing node assignment to
resource using ConsoleOne.
Which object's properties page allows you to change node assignments?
A. Any node object
B. The cluster object
C. The master node object
D. The Cluster ADMIN object
E. Any cluster-enabled resource or volume object
Answer: B

Novell   050-682 examen   050-682   050-682

NO.6 .DRAG DROP
Listed are the SET parameters used that instruct the server how to respond to an
abend and the description for each SET parameter.
Drag the parameter to the appropriate description.
Answer:

NO.7 .An iFolder user has discovered that new files are not being synchronized to his
server, while at the same time changes to existing files are being synchronized.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The conflict bin is too small.
B. Corrupted file maps are dirmaps.
C. The computer does not have sync rights.
D. The server does not have enough disk space.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Using the UAL licensing model, where is it recommended to install user license if the
server object resides in the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR container and the user
objects reside in the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container?
A. In any container.
B. In the Security container.
C. In the DIGITALAIR container.
D. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR container.
E. In the CUSTSERV.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
F. In the FLIGHTOPS.DEL.DIGITALAIR or DEL.DIGITALAIR containers.
Answer: E

Novell   050-682   certification 050-682

NO.9 Which RAID levels can be implemented with NSS? (Choose two)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
G. 6
H. 7
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 .You have just completed installing NCS and are now going to create a shared disk
partition.
Which utility is used to create a shared disk partition?
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. Server Manager
E. NWCONFIG.NLM
Answer: C

Novell   certification 050-682   050-682   050-682   050-682   050-682

NO.11 Which is a useful troubleshooting step if a server is not communicating?
A. Verify that cache buffers are over 20%.
B. Verify that the server is not out of packet receive buffers.
C. Verify that the DOS=HIGH command is not in CONFIG.SYS.
D. Remove memory managers from loading in AUTOEXEC.NCF.
Answer: B

Novell   050-682   050-682   050-682 examen

NO.12 .What happens during the Finish eDirectory Migration stage of a server migration to
NetWare 6 process? (Choose two)
A. The NICI files are copied.
B. The licenses are installed.
C. The volume objects are updated.
D. The destination server is restarted.
E. The file trustee assignment are restored.
Answer: C, E

Novell examen   050-682 examen   050-682 examen   050-682

NO.13 Which are tools you can use at the server console prompt to help troubleshoot IP
problems? (Choose two)
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
E. IPCONFIG
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 After a NetWare 6 server migration, you have noticed that device drivers are not
loading. These drivers need to be placed in the directory where SERVER.EXE
resides.
Where can you copy these drivers from?
A. C:\DRIVERS
B. SYS:SYSTEM
C. STS:ETC\DRIVERS
D. SYS:SYSTEM\DRIVERS
E. C:\NWSERVER\DRIVERS
Answer: E

Novell   050-682 examen   certification 050-682

NO.15 You just added a second hard drive to your RAID system. Click the area of the graphic
that redistributes data across all RAID devices, including the new hard drive.
Answer:
Explanation: Click on Restripe
page 6-9 Restriping redistributes data across all Raid devices, including the new hard
drive.

NO.16 When checking the state of a cluster resource, what color will the resource appear as, if it
is unknown?
A. Red
B. Gray
C. Green
D. Yellow
E. Blank (or no color)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which abend is almost always memory related?
A. Page fault
B. Invalid Opcode
C. Non Maskable Interrupt
D. General Protection Processor Exception
E. Ate Poison Pill in SbdWriteNode Tick given by some other node.
Answer: C

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NO.18 .Which statements are true about the source server when doing a server migration to
NetWare 6? (Choose two)
A. The source server must be running IP.
B. Any NetWare 3.x server and higher can be migrated to NetWare 6.
C. The source server's volumes must be the same size as the destination server's volumes.
D. If the source server is NetWare 4, the volumes must have long name space support
added.
E. The person performing the migration must have the Supervisor right to the source
server's file system.
Answer: D, E

certification Novell   050-682   050-682   certification 050-682

NO.19 In a NCS environment, a resource state of ALERT has been placed on a resource.
What is a reason that a resource would be in an ALERT state?
A. The resource is shut down or in an inactive state.
B. The resource is unloading from the server it was running on.
C. The resource is not running and requires administrator intervention.
D. There isn't an assigned node up that the resource can be loaded on.
E. The Start, Failover, or Failback mode for the resource has been set to manual.
Answer: E

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NO.20 .You are working in a pure IP environment and the workstation is not
communicating with the server.
Which are some valid troubleshooting steps that can be executed on the workstation to
help identify the problem? (Choose three)
A. Ping the server.
B. Use TRACERT.
C. Verify that DSTRACE is not running.
D. Use CONFIG to verify that the network board is bound.
E. Verify the workstation IP address with the IPCONFIG command.
F. RUN DSTRACE to verify there are no DS communication issues between the
workstation and server.
Answer: A, B, E

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Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Partition and replica plan
B.Time synchronization strategy
C.Number of objects in the tree
D.Number of servers in the tree
E.Physical network infrastructure
Correct:E

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.2 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. How many subordinate references will exist
in this tree?
A.3
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.8
F.9
G.12
Correct:E

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.3 Which statement is true about eDirectory partitions?
A.Partitions can overlap each other.
B.A container object can reside in 2 partitions.
C.A partition provides fault tolerance for the file system.
D.Partitions are logical divisions of eDirectory that enable the database to be divided among several
servers.
Correct:D

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.4 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A.Master
B.Read-only
C.Read/write
D.Filtered replica
E.Subordinate reference
Correct:E

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.5 Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your
eDirectory tree?
A.It is the best design type to handle future growth.
B.It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.
C.It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.
D.It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.
E.It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.
Correct:C

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.6 Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an
eDirectory tree?
A.Time synchronization strategy
B.Number of objects in the tree
C.Number of servers in the tree
D.Physical network infrastructure
E.Number of partitions and replicas
Correct:D

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.7 Which statements are true regarding the placement of eDirectory objects? (Choose 2.)
A.Place application objects in their own container.
B.Don't place user objects near the top of the tree.
C.If possible, don't place objects deep within a tree.
D.If possible, don't place server objects within the same container.
E.Server objects should be placed near the user objects they are servicing.
Correct:C E

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.8 What is a part of analyzing user needs when creating an accessibility needs analysis document?
A.Design a strategy for mobile users.
B.Specify ZENworks object configurations.
C.Specify security rights to particular objects.
D.Gather information related to physical network resource needs.
E.Create guidelines that determine how eDirectory objects are used to create the user environment.
Correct:D

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.9 What tasks are helpful in completing a needs analysis when designing an eDirectory tree?
(Choose 2.)
A.Gather information about network connectivity
B.Gather information about resources that users access
C.Gather information to decide on a replica placement strategy
D.Gather information to estimate the time for each phase of design
E.Gather information to decide which server should be the time provider
Correct:A B

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

NO.10 Which statement is true regarding the Priority Sync feature?
A.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting any partition.
B.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the root partition.
C.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting the same partition.
D.Priority Sync is supported only between two or more eDirectory 8.8 servers hosting parent or child
partitions.
Correct:C

Novell   050-695   050-695   050-695 examen

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Code d'Examen: 50-654
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Netware 5.1 advanced Administration)
Questions et réponses: 153 Q&As

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NO.1 Which RConsole agent NLM do you run to access the console screens of a NetWare 5.1 server
over an IP connection?
A.AIO.NLM
B.RCONAG6.NLM
C.RCONSOLE.NLM
D.RCONSOLEJ.NLM
Correct:B

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NO.2 What DOS utility is used for creating the DOS partition when installing NetWare 5.1?
A.FDISK
B.FORMAT
C.PARTITION
D.CHKDSK
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which NLM is used to configure Network Address Translation on a NetWare 5.1 server? Answer:
A.INETCFG.NLM
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which statement best describes a web application server?
A.A central location for public and private discussion groups.
B.A platform that provides the runtime environment for an application's business logic.
C.An application that lets users transfer files to and from the computer on the Internet.
D.An application that publishes documents and files on the World Wide Web or on an intranet.
Correct:B

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of Certificate Authority objects that may exist in the NDS tree?
Answer:
A.1
Correct:A

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NO.6 You need to modify the bindery context and NetWare server name for the server. Which file
must you change?
A.SYS:SYSTEM\STARTUP.NCF
B.SYS:SYSTEM\AUTOEXEC.NCF
C.C:\NWSERVER\STARTUP.NCF
D.C:\NWSERVER\AUTOEXEC.NCF
Correct:B

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NO.7 What is the command to unload all modules from ADDRESS_SPACE2 and remove the address
space?
A.UNLOAD ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
B.UNLOAD KILL ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
C.UNLOAD MODULES ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2
D.UNLOAD ADDRESS SPACE=ADDRESS_SPACE2 MODULES=ALL
Correct:A

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NO.8 When you are configuring DHCP, which object identifies the IP addresses available for dynamic
assignment?
A.DHCP Server object
B.Subnet Pool object
C.DNS-DHCP Locator object
D.Subnet Address Range object
Correct:D

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NO.9 What is the default method for an IP server to locate a migration agent?
A.Unicast
B.Multicast
C.Broadcast
D.SAP tables
E.DHCP query
F.Directed broadcast
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which network administration tool is used to down, restart, or reset a server?
A.ConsoleOne
B.NDS Manager
C.NetWare Administrator
D.NetWare Management Portal
Correct:D

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NO.11 What software provides the cryptography for the Novell Certificate Server? (The acronym is
acceptable.) Answer:
A.NICI
Correct:A

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NO.12 What NLF file allows you to install more than 1 license certificate at a time into license
Container objects?
A.Folders
B.Objects
C.Envelopes
D.Containers
Correct:C

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NO.13 In a Public Key Cryptography system, which key do other parties use to validate the key
owner's digital signature?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificate key
D.Authentication key
Correct:A

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding the Compatibility Mode Driver? (Choose 2.)
A.CMD encapsulates IPX packets within IP packets by adding an IP header.
B.In its migration agent mode, SCMD will not load if IPX is bound to a network board in the server.
C.IPX must be bound to the network board in the server before SCMD can be loaded in its default mode.
D.Workstations on IP-only segments need CMD configured in order to communicate with servers on
IPX-only segments.
Correct:A D

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NO.15 Which network administration tools can you use to create NDS objects? (Choose 3.)
A.ConsoleOne
B.NDS Manager
C.NetWare Administrator
D.NetWare Management Portal
E.Novell Application Launcher
Correct:A C D

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NO.16 NetWare has 4 types of loadable modules. Which modules control communication between the
server operating system and storage devices?
A.LAN Drivers
B.Disk Drivers
C.NLM Utilities
D.Name Space Modules
Correct:B

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NO.17 The Hung Console Screen is useful if you are unable to execute any commands at the server
console. Which hot key sequence would you use to bring up this screen?
A.Ctrl+Alt+Esc
B.Ctrl+Alt+Del
C.Ctrl+Alt+Tab
D.Ctrl+Shift+Esc
Correct:A

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NO.18 In a Public Key Cryptography system, which key does the key owner use to decrypt data he
receives from other parties?
A.Public key
B.Private key
C.Certificate key
D.Authentication key
Correct:B

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NO.19 Which type of DHCP object should you configure to manually assign an IP address to a specific
workstation on the network?
A.IP Address object
B.DHCP Subnet object
C.Subnet Pool object
D.Subnet Address Range object
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which server console command do you use to prevent unauthorized users from loading NLMs
outside the SYS:SYSTEM directory? Answer:
A.SECURECONSOLE
Correct:A

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Code d'Examen: 50-688
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Upgrading to netware 6.5)
Questions et réponses: 208 Q&As

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NO.1 When installing products on a NetWare 6.5 server, what does the Apache2 Web Server and
Tomcat 4 Servlet Container product option do?
A.Installs an administration instance of Tomcat 4.
B.Installs an administration instance of the Apache Web Server.
C.Installs the Apache Web Server and Tomcat 4 for a dedicated web hosting solution.
D.Installs both a public instance and an administration instance of Apache Web Server and Tomcat 4.
Correct:C

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NO.2 If you configure Virtual Office to use the Logging to File option, where is the resulting log file
created?
A.SYS:\ETC\VO.LOG
B.SYS:\APACHE\VO\DEBUG.XML
C.SYS:\TOMCAT\4\LOG\VO.LOG
D.SYS:\ETC\VIRTUALOFFICE.LOG
E.SYS:\APACHE\WEBAPPS\NPS\WEB-INF\DEBUG.XML
F.SYS:\TOMCAT\4\WEBAPPS\NPS\WEB-INF\DEBUG.XML
Correct:F

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NO.3 After completing a Remote Upgrade to NetWare 6.5 on a server in a multi-server tree, which
DSREPAIR operations should you run? (Choose 3.)
A.Import Remote Schema
B.Time Synchronization
C.Unattended Full Repair
D.Post NetWare 5 Schema Update
E.Report Synchronization Status
F.Designate This Server as the New Master Replica
Correct:B C E

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NO.4 Where is the information entered in the Company Info tab displayed in the Virtual Office home
page?
A.In the Notes field
B.In the Company field
C.Under the About Us link
D.In the Company Info field
E.In the Company Contacts field
F.In the Company Press Room field
G.Under the Organizational Information heading
Correct:D

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NO.5 When performing a Default Installation of NetWare 6.5, which parameters are configured
automatically by the installation program? (Choose 2.)
A.Codepage 437
B.VGA video mode
C.4 GB SYS volume
D.4 GB DATA volume
E.Basic NetWare File Server patterned deployment
Correct:A C

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NO.6 You are implementing a DirXML eDirectory driver to synchronize two trees. You've installed a
DirXML driver in one tree on a server that has a subordinate reference replica of the partition that
contains the objects to be synchronized. Another DirXML driver will be installed in the other tree
on a server that has the master replica of the partition that contains the objects to be
synchronized. Will this configuration work?
A.Yes, all DirXML requirements have been met.
B.No, you should never use a master replica on the DirXML server.
C.No, the replica types must be identical in both eDirectory trees.
D.No, DirXML requires a writable replica of the partition containing the objects to be synchronized.
E.No, DirXML should be installed only on a server in tree that will server as the authoritative data source.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Which files are created in SYS:\ETC when a server has been designated as host for the NSS
VLDB service? (Choose 3.)
A.VLDB.DAT
B.VLDB.NLM
C.VLDB.CFG
D.VLRPR.LOG
E.VLDB.CONF
F.VLDBCFG.DAT
Correct:A D F

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NO.8 Your organization has three regional eDirectory trees for each geographic location. One tree
runs on NetWare 5.1 servers; the others run on NetWare 6.0 servers. You've just installed a
high-end NetWare 6.5 server at your organization's headquarters and want to consolidate all the
servers in the disparate trees to the new server using the Server Consolidation Utility 2.5. Can this
be done?
A.Yes, the network meets the prerequisite requirements.
B.No, the Server Consolidation Utility 2.5 can't consolidate servers residing in different trees.
C.No, NetWare 6.0 servers can't be consolidated to a NetWare 6.5 server using the Server Consolidation
Utility 2.5.
D.No, NetWare 5.1 servers can't be consolidated to a NetWare 6.5 server using the Server Consolidation
Utility 2.5.
E.No, you can't consolidate servers of mixed versions to a NetWare 6.5 server using the Server
Consolidation Utility 2.5.
Correct:A

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NO.9 An element of NetWare 6.5's Business Continuity Services is __________, which allows you to
configure a storage area network (SAN) using standard Ethernet hardware. Answer:
A.ISCSI
Correct:A

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NO.10 You've configured a Branch Office system to use Automatic User Provisioning. When users
attempt to log in to the Appliance for the first time, authentication fails. The Appliance is running
on a server with 512 MB of RAM, a Pentium III 500 MHz CPU, and a 40 GB hard disk drive. The
users are using Windows 2000 Professional with Novell Client 4.9 installed. What is causing the
problem?
A.The Appliance requires at least 1 GB of RAM.
B.The Appliance requires a 1 GHz or faster CPU.
C.The workstation must be upgraded to Windows XP Home.
D.Novell Client 4.9 isn't compatible with Universal Password.
E.NICI must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 during the first login.
F.NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 during the first login.
Correct:F

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NO.11 Which NetWare 6.5 service allows users to find and restore deleted files without help desk
support?
A.iSCSI
B.DirXML
C.iFolder
D.Virtual Office
E.Archive and Versioning
F.Nterprise Branch Office
G.Novell File Access Protocols
Correct:E

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NO.12 Which command should you execute on a NetWare 4.2 server prior to consolidating it to a
NetWare 6.5 server to prevent compressed files from decompressing when accessed?
A.SET FAST VOLUME MOUNTS = ON
B.SET COMPRESSION DAILY CHECK STOP HOUR = 0
C.SET MAXIMUM CONCURRENT COMPRESSIONS = OFF
D.SET ALLOW UNOWNED FILES TO BE EXTENDED = OFF
E.SET MINIMUM COMPRESSION PERCENTAGE GAIN = 1
F.SET CONVERT COMPRESSED TO UNCOMPRESSED OPTION = 0
Correct:F

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NO.13 What is the function of the rbsCollection object?
A.Represents a leaf object used for ACL assignments.
B.Represents a leaf object that holds a specific function.
C.Represents a container object that holds rbsTask and rbsBook objects.
D.Specifies the tasks that users who are members are authorized to perform.
E.Represents a container object that holds all RBS Role and Module objects.
Correct:E

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NO.14 While installing the Branch Office Appliance software, you are prompted to save the
configuration to a diskette that can be used later during the installation of other Appliances. If you
choose to do so, the configuration parameters are saved in a file named ______________ on the
diskette. Answer:
A.AUTOLOAD.NBO
Correct:A

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NO.15 Which password does the CIFS service on your NetWare 6.5 server use, by default, to
authenticate clients after initial installation ?
A.NIS Password
B.LDAP Password
C.Simple Password
D.Universal Password
E.eDirectory Password
Correct:C

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NO.16 You're installing a new NetWare 6.5 server. The hardware you are using has dual PIII 1.13 GHz
CPUs, 384 MB of RAM, and a 40 GB SCSI SCA hard disk drive. Will the installation be successful?
A.No, NetWare 6.5 requires 512 MB or more RAM.
B.Yes, the hardware meets all prerequisite requirements.
C.No, NetWare 6.5 doesn't support multiprocessor systems.
D.No, NetWare 6.5 doesn't support SCSI SCA hard disk drives.
E.No, NetWare 6.5 requires an 80 GB or larger hard disk drive.
Correct:A

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NO.17 You are planning a consolidation of two NetWare 5.1 servers to a NetWare 6.5 server. You're
using a Windows XP Home workstation with Novell Client 4.9 installed. Each server has the latest
Support Pack installed. Will this consolidation succeed?
A.Yes, the systems meet all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, you can't consolidate NetWare 5.1 servers to NetWare 6.5.
C.No, the Server Consolidation Utility is not compatible with Windows XP Home.
D.No, the Server Consolidation Utility is incompatible with Novell Client version 4.9.
E.No, you must uninstall all Support Packs from the source servers before consolidating them.
Correct:C

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NO.18 You are configuring DirXML to synchronize three eDirectory trees: DA-TREE, EMA-TREE, and
ACMECORP-TREE. Data should flow only from DA-TREE to the other two trees. You want all
objects from DA-TREE, regardless of context, to be synchronized to a single container in both
EMA-TREE and in ACMECORP-TREE. How should you configure the eDirectory drivers in
EMA-TREE and ACMECORP-TREE?
A.Flat
B.Dept
C.Single
D.Mirrored
E.Subordinate
F.Consolidated
G.Authoritative
H.Bi-directional
Correct:A

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NO.19 A server that accesses iSCSI shared storage is called an iSCSI _______________. Answer:
A.INITIATOR
Correct:A

Novell examen   50-688 examen   certification 50-688   50-688 examen

NO.20 How is eDirectory used when Apache Manager is configured in Multiple Server Administration
model? (Choose 2.)
A.It is used as a database for storing Apache configuration parameters.
B.It is used to perform reverse lookups on requests coming from outside your domain.
C.It allows configuration parameters to be shared among multiple Apache Web Servers.
D.It is used as a repository for Open Source applets, allowing them to be shared concurrently by multiple
Apache Web Servers.
E.With partitioning and replication, it is used to provide failover functionality by distributing multiple
instances of the same web server among several NetWare 6.5 servers.
Correct:A C

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2014年4月29日星期二

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Code d'Examen: A2150-563
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assess: IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What is an Initial Work Entry?
A. It logs information about an initial error code.
B. It is an entry passed to an AssemblyLine when it is started.
C. It is the first entry retrieved from the Connector in Iterator mode.
D. It is used during initialization of the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Connector mode can be used in the AssemblyLine Feed section?
A. Delta
B. Iterator
C. Updat
D. AddOnly
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about one AssemblyLine (AL1) starting another
AssemblyLine (AL2) in
IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator V7.1 (TDI)? (Choose two.)
A. Both ALs can run at the same time.
B. Both ALs must be part of the same TDI Project.
C. Both ALs must be running on the same TDI Server.
D. The Task Call Block is used to pass in parameters and data.
E. If AL2 is started using script calls then it runs at a higher priority.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which statement is true for the Action Manager?
A. It updates the Work Entry.
B. It can send an Initial Work Entry to an AssemblyLine.
C. It is a command line utility used for importing certificates.
D. It executes rules that are configured using the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: D

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NO.5 AssemblyLines can be monitored using which two methods? (Choose two.)
A. System Store
B. Changelog Connectors
C. Server mode Connectors
D. command line utility tdisrvctl
E. Administration and Monitoring Console
Answer: D,E

IBM   A2150-563   certification A2150-563   A2150-563

NO.6 Which two statements are true for the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Entry
Object? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes and correlates events.
B. It can represent a single database row.
C. It acts as a client to a connected system.
D. It can be manipulated directly from Hook scripts.
E. It is used to encode a byte stream during read and write operations.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Which two options are available in AssemblyLine (AL) settings? (Choose two.)
A. view AL statistics
B. select the Property Store to use
C. configure Null Behavior at the AL level
D. define default error handling for the AL
E. set the AL pool size when Server mode is in use
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 What are two different ways to start an AssemblyLine (AL) with parameters from
another AL? (Choose
two.)
A. AssemblyLine Parser
B. AssemblyLine Launcher
C. AssemblyLine Connector
D. AssemblyLine Loop Component
E. AssemblyLine Function Component
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about an AssemblyLine (AL)? (Choose two.)
A. An AL with an empty Feed section can do work.
B. An AL must have at least one component in the Flow section.
C. All ALs run in sequence, each one starting when the previous one shuts down.
D. The Recycle Execution mode ensures that an AL is re-launched if it terminates.
E. The Feed section acts like a loop and cycles the Flow section components once for each
available
entry.
Answer: A,E

IBM   A2150-563   certification A2150-563   A2150-563 examen   A2150-563   A2150-563

NO.10 What are two uses for a Server mode Connector? (Choose two.)
A. to implement a web service
B. to intercept LDAP bind requests
C. to run AssembyLines in Simulation mode
D. to run multiple AssembyLines simultaneously
E. to enable First Failure Data Capture in AssemblyLines
Answer: A,B

IBM   A2150-563 examen   A2150-563

NO.11 What is a valid component in an AssemblyLine?
A. Script
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Subroutine
Answer: A

IBM   A2150-563   A2150-563

NO.12 Which two statements are true regarding a Task Call Block (TCB)? (Choose two.)
A. It is used for deleting an entry in Delete mode.
B. It is used by a caller to set a number of parameters for an AssemblyLine (AL).
C. It contains information about AL exceptions and error codes.
D. It is a Search (criteria) object used by ALs and Connectors to specify a generic search
criteria.
E. It can provide a list of input or output parameters specified by an AL, including operation
codes defined
in theOperations tab of the AL.
Answer: B,E

IBM   A2150-563   A2150-563   A2150-563

NO.13 A company's business requirements state that real-time changes must be
synchronized from an IBM
LDAP directory to an RDBMS database. Which Connector is required to feed data in to the
AssemblyLine?
A. JNDI Connector
B. FileSystem Connector
C. LDAP Server Connector
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server Change Log Connector
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement is true for Server mode?
A. It is similar to the Delta mode.
B. It can be used in the Flow Section of the AssemblyLine.
C. It is used to play back a recorded AssemblyLine execution.
D. It binds to some resource (like an IP port), accepts client connections, processes incoming
data, and
returns a response to the client.
Answer: D

IBM   A2150-563   A2150-563 examen

NO.15 Which three IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components can be used in an
AssemblyLine?
(Choose three.)
A. Script
B. Compiler
C. Connector
D. Protocol Bridge
E. Lexical Analyzer
F. Function Component
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.16 Where does the Delta Engine store the snapshots it takes of data being iterated?
A. Work Entry
B. Conn Object
C. System Store
D. System Queue
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the unit of work in IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1?
A. Project
B. Connector
C. System Store
D. AssemblyLine
Answer: D

IBM   A2150-563 examen   A2150-563 examen   A2150-563 examen

NO.18 Which three platforms support IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. HP/UX
C. Android
D. OS/400
E. System z
F. Mac OS X
Answer: A,B,E

certification IBM   A2150-563   A2150-563   A2150-563

NO.19 Which connector type must be used to access an LDAP LDIF file?
A. JNDI Connector
B. LDIF Connector
C. LDAP Connector D. File System Connector
Answer: D

IBM   A2150-563   certification A2150-563   certification A2150-563

NO.20 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components are used to control
AssemblyLine flow?
(Choose two.)
A. Else Branch
B. Attribute Map
C. Fail-over Node
D. Connector Loop
E. Aggregator Loop
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: A2070-581
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.1, Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.
Answer: C

IBM   A2070-581   A2070-581

NO.5 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage
area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

IBM   A2070-581 examen   A2070-581 examen

NO.6 Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:
All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A
complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be
replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?
A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they
specify an alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect
to the Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.
B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware
applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D

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NO.10 For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of
partitioning will reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A2040-925
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the following scenario, what will occur if the sender attempts to recall a message
after 10 days
have elapsed since it was originally sent to the recipient: - The sender and recipient are on
the same mail
server - The server is configured to allow message recall - The recipient is a member of a
group policy
that allows message recall - The sender is a member of a group policy that does not allow
message recall
- The sender has an explicit policy that allows message recall Message recall is allowed for
14 days for
the sender - Message recall is allowed for 8 days for the recipient
A. The sender will be allowed to recall the sent message
B. The sender will not be allowed to recall the sent message
C. The sender will receive a non-delivery report back stating the message recall failed
D. The sender will be prompted that they have exceeded the maximum time allowed for
message recall
Answer: A

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NO.2 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary
directory must only
be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of mbiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory
that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are optional advanced services that must be enabled manually
when first
configuring and installing the Domino server?
A. SMTP server
B. Agent Manager
C. Calendar Connector
D. DOLS (Domino Off-Line Services)
Answer: A

IBM   A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.4 Which ONE of the following is required when setting up transactional logging on a
server?
A. Enable Transactional Logging in the server document.
B. Add TRANS_LOG=1 to the server's NOTES.INI file.
C. Create a Transactional Logging document in the Directory Catalog.
D. Modify the NOTES.INI log settings to read LOG=LOG.NSF, TRANSLOG.NSF
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.5 In order to create a Domino cluster, which rights are required for you to have to the
Domino Directory.?
A. Editor access rights and ClusterModifier role
B. Reader access rights and ServerWriter and ServerManager roles
C. Designer access rights and ClusterCreator and ClusterModifier roles
D. Author access and Delete Documents rights and the ServerModifier and ServerCreator
roles
Answer: D

certification IBM   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925

NO.6 When creating the ID Vault for your domain, which of the following cannot be the name
of the vault?
A. The name of the server the vault is created on
B. The name of the administrator creating the vault
C. The name of the group that will manage the id vault
D. The same as an organizational unit used in the Domino domain
Answer: D

certification IBM   A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.7 A Notes mail message is sent by Miguel to an Internet address through an adjacent
Domino domain
over NRPC that then sends mail to the Internet over SMTP. Miguel is now attempting to
recall the mail
message. Which of the following will be the result of his attempt?
A. He will receive an email that he cannot recall the email message
B. He will immediately receive a prompt that the message is not enabled for message recall
C. He will receive a message from the Internet recipients mail server that the message
cannot be recalled
D. He will successfully recall the message if it is allowed in the server configuration and
enabled in his
user policy
Answer: A

certification IBM   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925   A2040-925 examen

NO.8 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which
Domino server
hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not
configured?
A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Answer: A

IBM examen   A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.9 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image
files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A. Enforce ECLs
B. Create File Protection documents
C. Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D. Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925 examen

NO.10 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one
of the following
describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option
available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The
administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary
directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary
directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925

NO.11 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document
placed?
A. NAMES.NSF
B. CERTLOG.NSF
C. CATALOG.NSF
D. DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

IBM   A2040-925   certification A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.12 Chaz, the Domino administrator, has noticed performance issues when LDAP
searches are being
performed against the Domino Directory. Which of the following is the best offered solution to
improve
performance?
A. Extend the LDAP schema to add new attributes
B. Create a full text index of the Domino Directory
C. Configure Directory Assistance to load all users into memory in advance
D. Delete the ($LDAP) view in the Domino Directory and let it rebuild automatically
Answer: B

IBM   certification A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.13 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of
the following?
A. Password database
B. Certifier document
C. Password hash file
D. Certifier database
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification A2040-925   certification A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.14 In order for Peggy to establish alternate message recall settings on a per server basis,
which of the
following is the best solution?
A. Configure the message recall settings in an organization level policy
B. Configure the message recall settings in each server's notes.ini file
C. Configure the message recall settings in each server configuration document
D. Configure the message recall settings in explicit policies and manually apply to users
Answer: C

IBM examen   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925   A2040-925

NO.15 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes
the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A. There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B. Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who
share a common
organizational certifier.
C. Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory.
Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D. Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users
and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

IBM examen   A2040-925 examen   A2040-925

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