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Code d'Examen: EADA10
Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Associate)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 An ArcGIS user is working within a map document and has realized that the Table of Contents is no
longer available. Which menu must the user choose to add the Table of Contents to his map document?
A. Insert menu
B. View menu
C. Edit menu
D. Windows menu
E. Add menu
Answer: A

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NO.2 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.5 An ArcGIS user creates a locator from a polyline feature class that exists in a feature dataset.
Where can the locator be saved?
A. in a feature dataset
B. in a Windows folder
C. in a topology dataset
D. in a feature class
Answer: D

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NO.6 An ArcGIS user is analyzing an earthquake dataset to investigate the relationship between magnitude
and duration of incidents. The user displays magnitude on an x-axis and duration on a y-axis.
Which type of graph is the user employing?
A. box plot
B. histogram
C. scatter plot
D. bar
Answer: A

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NO.7 When should an ArcGIS user change the reference scale of an existing map annotation?
A. when the user adds a scale bar to the map layout
B. when the user brings data into the map that has a projected coordinate system
C. when the user creates a new feature linked annotation feature class and adds it to a new data frame for
editing
D. when the user uses the same map template to create a second map that contains data from a different
geographic area
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 The ArcGIS user works with a map document that contains a very detailed image that takes several
seconds to draw when panning.
Which action can the ArcGIS user take that will improve the performance when panning in ArcMap?
A. put the image layer in a group laver
B. set the reference scale on the image layer
C. put the image laver in a basemap layer
D. make the image layer selectable
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two factors should be considered when determining appropriateness of a dataset for a task?
(Choose two)
A. display colors
B. scale of data
C. geometry type
D. feature class names
E. configuration keywords
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.13 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which limit is set for file geodatabase name length for ArcGIS Desktop.?
A. no limit
B. limited to 32 characters
C. limited to 255 characters
D. limited to the number of characters the operating system allows in a folder name
Answer: C

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NO.15 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: S90-20A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Security Lab)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Service A exchanges messages with Service B multiple times during the same runtime service activity.
Communication between Services A and B has been secured using transport-layer security. With each
service request message sent to Service B (1A. IB), Service A includes an
X.509 certificate, signed by an external Certificate Authority (CA). Service B validates the certificate by
retrieving the public key of the CA (2A. 2B) and verifying the digital signature of the
X.509 certificate. Service B then performs a certificate revocation check against a separate external CA
repository (3A, 3B). No intermediary service agents reside between Service A and Service B.
To fulfill a new security requirement, Service A needs to be able to verify that the response message sent
by Service B has not been modified during transit. Secondly, the runtime performance between Services
A and B has been unacceptably poor and therefore must be improved without losing the ability to verify
Service A's security credentials. It has been determined that the latency is being caused by redundant
security processing carried out by Service B.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that fulfills these requirements?
A. Apply the Trusted Subsystem pattern to introduce a utility service that performs the security processing
instead of Service B. The utility service can verify the security credentials of request messages from
Service A and digitally sign messages sent to Service A to enable verification of message integrity.
Furthermore, the utility service can perform the verification of security credentials submitted by Service A
only once per runtime service activity. After the first messageexchange, it can issue a SAML token to
Service A that gets stored within the current session. Service A can then use this session-based token
with subsequent message exchange. Because SAML tokens have a very small validity period (in contrast
to X.509 certificates), there is no need to perform a revocation check with every message exchange.
B. Service B needs to be redesigned so that it performs the verification of request messages from Service
A only for the first message exchange during the runtime service activity. Thereafter, it can issue a SAML
token to Service A that gets stored within the current session. Service A then uses this session-based
token with subsequent message exchanges. Because SAML tokens have a very small validity period (in
contrast to X.509 certificates), there is no need to perform a revocation check with every message
exchange.
C. WS-SecurityPolicy transport binding assertions can be used to improve performance via
transport-layer security The use of symmetric keys can keep the encryption and decryption overhead to a
minimum, which will further reduce the latency between Service A and Service B. By encrypting the
messages, attackers cannot modify message contents, so no additional actions for integrity verification
are needed.
D. The Data Origin Authentication pattern can be applied together with the Service Perimeter Guard
pattern to establish a perimeter service that can verify incoming request messages sent to Service B and
to filter response messages sent to Service A. The repository containing the verification information about
the Certificate Authorities can be replicated in the trust domain of the perimeter service. When access is
requested by Service A, the perimeter service evaluates submitted security credentials by checking them
against the locally replicated repository. Furthermore, it can encrypt messages sent to Service A by
Service B. and attach a signed hash value.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Service Consumer A sends a request message to Service A (1) after which Service A retrieves financial
data from Database A (2). Service A then sends a request message with the retrieved data to Service B
(3). Service B exchanges messages with Service C (4) and Service D (5), which perform a series of
calculations on the data and return the results to Service A. Service A uses these results to update
Database A (7) and finally sends a response message to Service Consumer A (8). Component B has
direct, independent access to Database A and is fully trusted by Database A. Both Component B and
Database A reside within Organization A. Service Consumer A and Services A, B, C, and D are external to
the organizational boundary of Organization A.
Component B is considered a mission critical program that requires guaranteed access to and fast
response from Database A. Service A was recently the victim of a denial of service attack, which resulted
in Database A becoming unavailable for extended periods of time (which further compromised
Component B). Additionally, Services B, C, and D have repeatedly been victims of malicious intermediary
attacks, which have further destabilized the performance of Service A.
How can this architecture be improved to prevent these attacks?
A. A utility service is created to encapsulate Database A and to assume responsibility for authenticating all
access to the database by Service A and any other service consumers. Due to the mission critical
requirements of Component B, the utility service further contains logic that strictly limits the amount of
concurrent requests made to Database A from outside the organizational boundary. The Data
Confidentiality and Data Origin Authentication patterns are applied to all message exchanged within the
external service composition in order to establish message-layer security.
B. Service Consumer A generates a private/public key pair and sends this public key and identity
information to Service A. Service A generates its own private/public key pair and sends it back to Service
Consumer A. Service Consumer A uses the public key of Service A to encrypt a randomly generated
session key and then sign the encrypted session key with the private key. The encrypted, signed session
key is sent to Service A. Now, this session key can be used for secure message-layer communication
between Service Consumer A and Service A. The Service Perimeter Guard pattern is applied to establish
a perimeter service that encapsulates Database A in order to authenticate all external access requests.
C. Services B, C, and D randomly generate Session Key K, and use this key to encrypt request and
response messages with symmetric encryption. Session Key K is further encrypted itself asymmetrically.
When each service acts as a service consumer by invoking another service, it decrypts the encrypted
Session Key K and the invoked service uses the key to decrypt the encrypted response. Database A is
replicated so that only the replicated version of the database can be accessed by Service A and other
external service consumers.
D. The Direct Authentication pattern is applied so that when Service Consumer A submits security
credentials, Service A will be able to evaluate the credentials in order to authenticate the request
message. If the request message is permitted, Service A invokes the other services and accesses
Database A. Database A is replicated so that only the replicated version of the database can be accessed
by Service A and other external service consumers.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: L50-503
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.5 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.6 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.7 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.10 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.17 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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Les meilleures GIAC GISF examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: GISF
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 438 Q&As

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NO.1 In a complex network, Router transfers data packets by observing some form of parameters or metrics
provided in the routing table. Which of the following metrics is NOT included in the routing table?
A. Bandwidth
B. Load
C. Delay
D. Frequency
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are the project manager of SST project. You are in the process of collecting and distributing
performance information including status report, progress measurements, and forecasts. Which of the
following process are you performing?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Report Performance
D. Control Scope
Answer: C

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NO.3 Computer networks and the Internet are the prime mode of Information transfer today. Which of the
following is a technique used for modifying messages, providing Information and Cyber security, and
reducing the risk of hacking attacks during communications and message passing over the Internet?
A. Cryptography
B. OODA loop
C. Risk analysis
D. Firewall security
Answer: A

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NO.4 You work as an Exchange Administrator for TechWorld Inc. The company has a Windows 2008 Active
Directory-based network. The network contains an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
The messaging organization contains one Hub Transport server, one Client Access server, and two
Mailbox servers.
You are planning to deploy an Edge Transport server in your messaging organization to minimize the
attack surface. At which of the following locations will you deploy the Edge Transport server?
A. Active Directory site
B. Intranet
C. Behind the inner firewall of an organization
D. Perimeter network
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following protocols can help you get notified in case a router on a network fails?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. TCP
D. ARP
Answer: B

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NO.6 How should you configure the Regional Centers' e-mail, so that it is secure and encrypted? (Click the
Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Use EFS.
B. Use IPSec.
C. Use S/MIME.
D. Use TLS.
Answer: C

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NO.7 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to test the effect of a virus on the We-are-secure server. He injects
the virus on the server and, as a result, the server becomes infected with the virus even though an
established antivirus program is installed on the server. Which of the following do you think are the
reasons why the antivirus installed on the server did not detect the virus injected by John?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The virus, used by John, is not in the database of the antivirus program installed on the ser ver.
B. The mutation engine of the virus is generating a new encrypted code.
C. John has created a new virus.
D. John has changed the signature of the virus.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true about Dsniff?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a virus.
B. It contains Trojans.
C. It is antivirus.
D. It is a collection of various hacking tools.
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application. You want to use the
application to encrypt data. You use the HashAlgorithmType enumeration to specify the algorithm used for
generating Message Authentication Code (MAC) in Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) communications.
Which of the following are valid values for HashAlgorithmType enumeration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. MD5
B. None
C. DES
D. RSA
E. SHA1
F. 3DES
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 Mark is implementing security on his e-commerce site. He wants to ensure that a customer sending a
message is really the one he claims to be. Which of the following techniques will he use to ensure this?
A. Packet filtering
B. Authentication
C. Firewall
D. Digital signature
Answer: D

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NO.11 Based on the information given in the case study, which two authentication methods should you use to
allow customers to access their photos on the Web site?
(Click the Exhibit button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Basic authentication without SSL
B. Digest authentication with SSL
C. Integrated Windows authentication
D. Anonymous access
E. Basic authentication with SSL
F. Digest authentication without SSL
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. The company is aware of various types of security attacks and wants to impede them. Hence,
management has assigned John a project to port scan the company's Web Server. For this, he uses the
nmap port scanner and issues the following command to perform idleport scanning:
nmap -PN -p- -sI IP_Address_of_Company_Server
He analyzes that the server's TCP ports 21, 25, 80, and 111 are open.
Which of the following security policies is the company using during this entire process to mitigate the risk
of hacking attacks?
A. Audit policy
B. Antivirus policy
C. Non-disclosure agreement
D. Acceptable use policy
Answer: A

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NO.13 A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used
to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside
networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal
network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP
addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. IPChains
B. OpenSSH
C. Stunnel
D. IPTables
Answer: D

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NO.14 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the
business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to
perform at an agreed level over a period of time?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Maintainability
B. Resilience
C. Error control
D. Recoverability
E. Reliability
F. Security
G. Serviceability
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.15 Your company is going to add wireless connectivity to the existing LAN. You have concerns about the
security of the wireless access and wish to implement encryption. Which of the following would be the
best choice for you to use?
A. WAP
B. WEP
C. DES
D. PKI
Answer: B

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NO.16 Your company is covered under a liability insurance policy, which provides various liability coverage for
information security risks, including any physical damage of assets, hacking attacks, etc.
Which of the following risk management techniques is your company using?
A. Risk acceptance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and
applications?
A. Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS)
B. Internet service provider (ISP)
C. Network Access Point (NAP)
D. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
Answer: D

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NO.18 You have successfully installed an IRM server into your environment. This IRM server will be utilized to
protect the company's videos, which are available to all employees but contain sensitive data. You log on
to the WSS 3.0 server with administrator permissions and navigate to the Operations section. What option
should you now choose so that you can input the RMS server name for the WSS 3.0 server to use.?
A. Self-service site management
B. Content databases
C. Information Rights Management
D. Define managed paths
Answer: C

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NO.19 How long are cookies in effect if no expiration date is set?
A. Fifteen days
B. Until the session ends.
C. Forever
D. One year
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are a Product manager of Marioxiss Inc. Your company management is having a conflict with
another company Texasoftg Inc. over an issue of security policies. Your legal advisor has prepared a
document that includes the negotiation of views for both the companies. This solution is supposed to be
the key for conflict resolution. Which of the following are the forms of conflict resolution that have been
employed by the legal
advisor?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Orientation
B. Mediation
C. Negotiation
D. Arbitration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.21 You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project
using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network
infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the
requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you
employ to accomplish the
task?
A. Physical configuration audit
B. Configuration control
C. Functional configuration audit
D. Configuration identification
Answer: A

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NO.22 You work as a security manager for Qualxiss Inc. Your Company involves OODA loop for resolving and
deciding over company issues. You have detected a security breach issue in your company.
Which of the following procedures regarding the breach is involved in the observe phase of the OODA
loop?
A. Follow the company security guidelines.
B. Decide an activity based on a hypothesis.
C. Implement an action practically as policies.
D. Consider previous experiences of security breaches.
Answer: A

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NO.23 John works as an Exchange Administrator for Apple Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 Active
Directory domain-based network. The network contains several Windows Server 2003 servers. Three of
them have been configured as domain controllers. John complains to the Network Administrator that he is
unable to manage group memberships. Which of the following operations master roles is responsible for
managing group memberships?
A. PDC emulator
B. Infrastructure master
C. Schema master
D. RID master
Answer: B

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NO.24 You work as a Network Administrator for ABC Inc. The company has a secure wireless network.
However, in the last few days, an attack has been taking place over and over again. This attack is taking
advantage of ICMP directed broadcast. To stop this attack, you need to disable ICMP directed broadcasts.
Which of the following attacks is taking place?
A. Smurf attack
B. Sniffer attack
C. Cryptographic attack
D. FMS attack
Answer: A

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NO.25 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network.
You have configured an Internet access router on the network. A user complains that he is unable to
access a resource on the Web. You know that a bad NAT table entry is causing the issue. You decide to
clear all the entries on the table. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. show ip dhcp binding
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. ipconfig /all
D. clear ip nat translation *
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which of the following types of virus is capable of changing its signature to avoid detection?
A. Stealth virus
B. Boot sector virus
C. Macro virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following protocols provides secured transaction of data between two computers?
A. SSH
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. RSH
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following are the goals of the cryptographic systems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Availability
B. Authentication
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.29 You are a Consumer Support Technician. You are helping a user troubleshoot computer-related issues.
While troubleshooting the user's computer, you find a malicious program similar to a virus or worm. The
program negatively affects the privacy and security of the computer and is capable of damaging the
computer. Which of the following alert levels of Windows Defender is set for this program?
A. Low
B. High
C. Severe
D. Medium
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Privacy
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B,C,D

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Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET)
Questions et réponses: 550 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework
3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos should be
accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can be easily
maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored on a SQL server
database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Session variables can be any valid __________.
A. .NET Framework type
B. Integer type
C. SessionStateItemCollection object
D. Object type
Answer: A

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NO.3 Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its
application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt
all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D

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NO.4 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code
access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access
security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events
throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming
and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to
create the HTTP module?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that
will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that
only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the
employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database
named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the
following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Answer: A

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NO.7 You can use LINQ in an ASP.NET application through the LinqDataSource control, the __________
control, or by creating LINQ queries.
A. ADO.NET DataSet
B. ObjectDataSource
C. SqlDataSource
D. XmlDataSource
Answer: B

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NO.8 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework
3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code segments will
you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error.htm">
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode="Off">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode="Off" defaultRedirect="Error.htm"> <error statusCode="404"
redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently
finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only
for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the
computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
Answer: B

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NO.10 Andrew works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. The company's network has a Web server
that hosts the company's Web site. Andrew wants to enhance the security of the Web site by
implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Symmetric
B. Secret
C. IPSec
D. Asymmetric
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to
another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following techniques is used to transmit passwords during authentication?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Salted Hash
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: C

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NO.13 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an
application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company.
You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following
code in the application:
String s1 = "C rtify";
String s2 = "c rtify";
String s3 = "c rtify";
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore
case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A

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NO.14 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate the
phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the following is the most
effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number.?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A

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NO.15 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three
Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following
requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following
configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode="StateServer"/>
B. <sessionState mode="InProc"/>
C. <sessionState mode="Custom"/>
D. <sessionState mode="SQLServer"/>
Answer: D

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NO.16 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application
development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to
open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust
permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections:
SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open
the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the
following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D

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NO.17 You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown
below.
string str1 = "ABC";
string str2 = "u";
str2 += "Certify";
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False False False
B. False True False
C. True True True
D. True False True
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5.
You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a
DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the
DropDownList control displays is the "Select Country" option. You have to ensure that users select a
country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to
accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following session and instancing modes will you set if you require a sessionfull binding
and want to create a new instance object for each client request?
A. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerSession.
B. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to Single.
C. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
D. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application
using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to
complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly 'myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95'.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no
exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications fold er.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: adwords-reporting
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 211 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a Google AdWords consultant to a company that sells magic tricks, stage props, and costumes
for theatres. Their website is robust, full of good articles and keywords, and
wellorganized.
As their new Google AdWords consultant, which one of the following AdWords strategies would you
recommend for their different lines of products?
A. Create separate campaigns for product line: one for magic tricks, one for stage props, and one for
costumes.
B. Create one campaign for all of their products to maximize ad exposure.
C. Create a campaign based on their products and use placements to target their audience.
D. Create keywords that are specific to purchasing magic tricks, stage props, or costumes.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Joan is about to enroll in the Google AdWords for her travel agency for her European business. She
wants to target clients throughout Europe using English, Spanish, French, and Flemish ads.
Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Joan about Google AdWords, to target multiple
languages?
A. Create four ads - one for each language.
B. Create four ad groups - one for each language.
C. Create four campaigns - one for each language.
D. Use English only, as it's the most common of the four languages she's targeting.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Mark is configured Google Analytics for his blog. Mark does not sell any products on his blog as he
uses it to market his public speaking business. Mark would, however, like to assign a dollar value for
customers that complete the 'contact me' field on his website to track return on investment for the
marketing he has done to bring people to the site. If Mark considers each lead worth $50 what field in the
configuration of the goals in Google Analytics would Mark add the $50 value to?
A. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website he would not be able to track dollar amounts
through Google Analytics.
B. Mark can enter 2500 in the 'metric goal' field in the Google Analytics configuration and then choose
"dollars" in the currency value.
C. Mark can simply enter $25 in the 'goal value' field in the Google Analytics configuration of the goal he
has created for the 'contact me' form on his website.
D. Mark does not have an e-commerce enabled website but he can enter 25 in the "goal
completion" field and know the points are actually $25 towards his ROI.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are trying to determine the return on investment for a Google AdWords campaign for a client.
Which of the following is the correct formula for finding the return on investment for Google AdWords.?
A. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Revenue from Sales
B. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Duration of Ad
C. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)/Advertising costs
D. (Revenue from sales - Advertising costs)
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have added "coffee cups" as a keyword to your Google AdWords campaign. Which of the
following Google searches would cause your ad to display?
A. Only searches for "coffee cups" as it's using the exact match options.
B. Only search for "coffee cups" (lower cased) as it's using the case sensitive options.
C. Any queries that search for "coffee cups" in quotation marks.
D. Any queries that include "coffee cups" in the search, such as yellow coffee cups or coffee cups sale.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What reporting portion of Google Analytics would you examine if you're interested in seeing your most
popular pages in your website?
A. E-commerce
B. Content
C. Web page views
D. Goals
Answer: B

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NO.7 In Google AdWords there are two places where you can see the information for the Placement
Performance Report. The first is through the Reporting tab and the actual Placement Performance report.
Where else can you see the information in the Placement Performance Report in Google AdWords?
A. You can have the report emailed to you in .csv format.
B. You can see the details on your Keywords tab.
C. You can see the details on your Account Performance Tab.
D. You can see the details on the Networks tab.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Holly is the webmaster for her company's website and she would like to install and configure Google
Analytics. She has configured her website for the Google Analytics code but is uncertain on what pages
she should install the tracking code. Where does Holly need to install the Google Analytics code ga.js in
her website?
A. On her home page
B. On her index page
C. On her Google Analytics destination URL
D. On every page of her website
Answer: D

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NO.9 How is an ad's Clickthrough rate calculated?
A. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the number of impressions.
B. It's the number of clicks an ad receives from anywhere in the Google Search or Google Content
Network.
C. It's the total number of clicks an ad receives from the Google Content Network.
D. It's the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the cost of each click.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Holly is creating a new custom report in Google Analytics. When Holly creates a new report how many
dimensions can she include in the report?
A. Seven
B. One
C. Five
D. Ten
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client and you're helping them optimize their Google
AdWords ads to increase their return on investment. Google recommend three optimization approaches
to increase return on investment. Which of the following is NOT an activity that you should do to improve
ROI for your client's ads?
A. Define a clear call-to-action
B. Filter out unqualified clicks
C. Relate ads to their landing pages
D. Include deals and benefits
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between Google AdWords and the
quality score?
A. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
B. The lower a keyword's Quality Score, the lower the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
C. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the better its ad position.
D. The higher a keyword's Quality Score, the higher the price you pay for each click and the better its ad
position.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Jane is using Google AdWords and she's receiving a moderate return on investment for budget. Jane
would like to use a targeting tool to help her improve her Google AdWords program. Which of the
following is a target tool that will help Jane to increase her ROI for her Google AdWords?
A. Conversion Tracking
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. Traffic Estimator
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are a Google AdWords consultant for a client. You've created a Google AdWords campaign for
your client's website and you've identified 30 keywords for the campaign. You'd like to use a Google tool
to help you identify additional keywords through synonyms and different spellings.
What Google AdWords tool would you use?
A. Keyword Tool Supercharger
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. AdWords Editor
Answer: C

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NO.15 Google determines a quality score to evaluate keyword relevance. The higher the quality score, the
better the ad will perform for your site. There are several factors that go into determining your quality
score, which include your clickthrough rate, the relevance of your ad text, keyword, and what is the other
factor?
A. Domain name
B. History of Google AdWords
C. Negative keywords
D. Landing page
Answer: D

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NO.16 You are configuring goals for a large complex website. How many goals can you create for each website
profile in Google Analytics?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.17 Doug is a Google AdWords consultant to a client who is using conversion tracking. The client's goal is
to bring web visitors to his website, and to get the clients sign up for a free newsletter. The client does not
sell a product or service as a result of the conversion, but only the free newsletter is offered. The client
has asked Doug to calculate the return on investment, for the conversions that have been made as a
result of the Google AdWords campaign. If the client is not selling a product or service, how can Doug find
the return on investment?
A. Doug would need to know the value of the newsletter.
B. Doug needs to know the product cost of the client, to find the return on investment.
C. You can't track the ROI if there's nothing for sale as a result of the conversion.
D. Doug needs to know what the final cost of the newsletter would be.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Ben is reviewing the Google Analytics report for his website. He's examining the e-commerce reports
to determine how well his sales have been in proportion to the traffic he's received. Ben would like to see
the ratio of actual sales from his website in relation to the amount of traffic he's received. Within the
e-commerce section of Google Analytics what report should Ben utilize?
A. Total revenue
B. Visits to Purchase
C. Conversion rate
D. Average order value
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are exploring Google Analytics for a website you have created. In Google Analytics, you would like
to configure the dashboard's graph to look like the one in the figure below. What are the appropriate steps
to create this graph measuring total visits and new visits for your website?
A. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visits and % New Visits.
B. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Compare Two Metrics," and
then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
C. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
D. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose "Multiple Metrics," and then
choose Visits and % New Visits.
Answer: A

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NO.20 When you configure a new action for Google AdWords conversion tracking, there is a customized field
called "other" and four other tracking purpose fields. Which of the following is not a valid tracking purpose
for conversion tracking?
A. Download
B. Signup
C. View of a key page
D. Purchase/Sale
Answer: A

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