Symantec ASC-094 ST0-114 ASC-066 ASC-012 ST0-097 ST0-090 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ASC-094
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-114
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (PGP Universal Server 3.0 Technical Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-066
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ASC-012
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (ASC High Availablity Assessment)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-097
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-090
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.2 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.6 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.7 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.13 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.14 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.16 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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NO.18 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.19 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ST0-090
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 Which function of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 is responsible for generating tiered dashboards?
A. DPS Evaluator
B. DPS Reporter
C. Application server
D. Directory server
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is required for the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Application server and Directory server
components to support Kerberos authentication in an Active Directory environment?
A. username and password
B. configured PKI certificates
C. configured Service Principal Names (SPNs)
D. successful sync configuration
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which database do the dashboards pull data from?
A. Production database
B. Reporting database
C. Evidence database
D. Master database
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Standards Evaluation has completed and is ready to be viewed. What are two view options.? (Select
two.)
A. Risk-based view
B. Compliance-based view
C. Asset-based view
D. Failure-based view
E. Standard-based view
Answer: C, E

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NO.5 In terms of securing systems and configurations, Control Compliance Suite 10.0 performs which two
functions? (Select two.)
A. performs event correlation on security logs
B. identifies high risk systems and configurations
C. scans content of servers for confidential information
D. provides guidance for and measures effectiveness against industry standards
E. proactively blocks threats from penetrating critical systems
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 Which two statements accurately describe the purpose of the Control Compliance Suite Production
database? (Select two.)
A. It stores the data that is collected from the assets.
B. It stores data specific to individual dashboards.
C. It stores the results of evaluation jobs.
D. It stores data specific to individual reports.
E. It stores evidence gathered from the extended evidence sources.
Answer: A, C

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NO.7 When an administrator of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 views the results of an evaluation against a
standard, both the risk score and the compliance score are high. How can these evaluation results be
explained?
A. Multiple sections contain failures.
B. The risk score tracks critical failures.
C. Many exceptions have been approved.
D. The compliance score tracks informational items.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are two available formats for exporting reports from the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Reporting
and Analytics Console? (Select two.)
A. Comma Separated Values (CSV)
B. Portable Document Format (PDF)
C. Crystal Reports (RPT)
D. Microsoft PowerPoint (PPT)
E. Microsoft Access (MDB)
Answer: B, C

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NO.9 An administrator wants to ensure that issues flagged as out of compliance are addressed as efficiently
as possible. The administrator wants to trigger the remediation process. Where is the remediation option
set?
A. within the Evaluation Job Wizard
B. within the Standard specification
C. on the Asset Properties page
D. on the Reporting page
Answer: A

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NO.10 Asset Import jobs from a particular site are running more slowly than Asset Import jobs from other sites.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The Application server service is untrusted for delegation.
B. One of the DPS Collectors from the site has failed.
C. The Reporting Database Synchronization job has failed.
D. Service Principal Names (SPNs) are configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The Response Assessment Module Web Service application pool account must be a member of which
group?
A. Administrators
B. IIS_WPG
C. RAM_Administrators
D. Distributed COM Users
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator troubleshooting the Symantec Control Compliance system notices that both the
Application server and the Directory server failed to start. The administrator verifies that Windows started
normally on the two servers. What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. verify that the Active Directory server is running
B. ping the load balancer from the Application server
C. verify that the Information server is running
D. verify internet access from the Directory server
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two actions can be taken on a predefined report in the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Console?
(Select two.)
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Copy
D. Export Report Template
E. Paste
Answer: C, D

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NO.14 A single Data Processing Service (DPS) Reporter is assigned to perform database synchronization
between which two databases? (Select two.)
A. Reporting database
B. Evidence database
C. Credentials database
D. Production database
E. Master database
Answer: A, D

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NO.15 Which Control Compliance Suite component automates the analysis of procedural controls?
A. Standards Module
B. Entitlements Module
C. Policy Module
D. Response Assessment Module
Answer: D

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NO.16 A Control Compliance Suite 10.0 user schedules a Policy Acceptance report. After the Report job
finishes, the user opens the results and receives the message: 'No data available to generate this report.'
The user is sure that certain people have already accepted policies this morning. What should the user do
in order to get the data in the report?
A. run the Report Generation job again
B. run the Policy and Mandates Metrics Computation job
C. run the Report Data Purge job
D. run the Report Data Synchronization job
Answer: D

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NO.17 In order to use Response Assessment Module results as policy evidence in Control Compliance Suite
(CCS), which two statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. The policy and question must be mapped to the same control statement.
B. The same CCS asset must be part of the policy and the questionnaire.
C. The questionnaire and policy evaluation must be performed simultaneously.
D. The Content Studio must be mapped to the RAM server.
E. The user must be assigned the data owner role to validate the result.
Answer: A, B

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NO.18 What must be done before the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 can use a newly installed Data
Processing Service (DPS)?
A. synchronize settings on all registered DPS hosts
B. register the DPS with the Application server
C. set all values of the common fields with reconciliation rules
D. import primary assets
Answer: B

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NO.19 Within an evaluation result, the status 'Unknown' is primarily defined with which check setting?
A. missing data items
B. heck ex ression
C. precondition
D. post-processing expression
Answer: A

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NO.20 A Data Collection job fails for a Windows machine in Control Compliance Suite 10.0 (CCS). All
components appear to have been correctly installed and configured in the console. What is an initial step
to take outside of the CCS Console (Reporting and Analytics) to troubleshoot the issue?
A. restart Symantec RMS Process Manager
B. run a bv-Control for Windows query
C. recreate the Credentials database
D. verify the Enterprise Configuration Service
Answer: B

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